HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?
- A. Encourage mobilization and ambulation
- B. Encourage energy conservation with complete bed rest
- C. Provide humidified oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Restrict oral (PO) and intravenous fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.
2. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL รท 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
3. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
4. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Increased appetite.
- C. Hyperglycemia.
- D. Fever or sore throat.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.
5. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who is reluctant to ambulate. What strategy should the nurse use to encourage the client?
- A. Explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery
- B. Wait for the client to request to walk
- C. Tell the client that walking is necessary for discharge
- D. Offer pain medication before walking
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct strategy for the nurse to encourage the postoperative client to ambulate is to explain the benefits of ambulation for recovery. Educating the client on how ambulation aids in preventing complications and promotes faster recovery can motivate their participation. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for the client to request to walk may lead to delays in mobilization. Choice C is incorrect as it may induce unnecessary fear in the client. Choice D is incorrect as offering pain medication before walking does not address the client's reluctance to ambulate.
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