HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?
- A. Starting an exercise program
- B. Keeping a sleep diary
- C. Practicing relaxation techniques before bed
- D. Using sleep-inducing medications at night
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.
2. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?
- A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
- B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
- C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
- D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
- B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
- C. Prepare for emergency intubation
- D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.
4. Which of the following are key parameters that produce blood pressure? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are indeed key parameters that directly influence blood pressure. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, affecting how much blood is pumped. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction. Peripheral resistance is the resistance of the arteries to blood flow, impacting the pressure needed to push blood through. Neuroendocrine hormones, while they can indirectly influence blood pressure regulation by affecting factors like blood volume and vascular tone, are not direct final parameters that produce blood pressure.
5. A new mother is at the clinic with her 4-week-old for a well-baby check-up. The nurse should tell the mother to anticipate that the infant will demonstrate which milestone by 2 months of age?
- A. Turns from side to back and returns
- B. Consistently returns smiles to mother
- C. Finds hands and plays with fingers
- D. Holds head up and supports weight with arms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because social smiling is a developmental milestone typically expected around 2 months of age. At this stage, infants start to engage more with their caregivers and show positive emotional responses. The other choices are incorrect. Choice A describes a motor skill that usually emerges later. Choice C involves more coordination and exploration, which is not typically seen by 2 months. Choice D relates to head control and arm strength, which also develop progressively but may not be fully achieved by 2 months.
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