HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. The patient is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which of the following laboratory values would be most important to monitor?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood glucose level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial when a patient is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, a condition of low white blood cell count, which significantly increases the risk of infections. Monitoring white blood cell count helps healthcare providers intervene promptly to prevent severe infections. Hemoglobin level, while important in assessing oxygen-carrying capacity, is not the priority in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer.
2. A healthcare provider is providing range of motion to the shoulder and must perform external rotation. Which action will the provider take?
- A. Moves the patient's arm in a full circle.
- B. Moves the patient's arm across the body as far as possible.
- C. Moves the patient's arm behind the body, keeping the elbow straight.
- D. Moves the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for external rotation of the shoulder involves moving the patient's arm until the thumb is upward and lateral to the head with the elbow flexed. This position maximizes external rotation at the shoulder joint. Choices A, moving the arm in a full circle, B, moving the arm across the body, and C, moving the arm behind the body with the elbow straight, do not describe external rotation and are incorrect. Therefore, Choice D is the correct action for performing external rotation.
3. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer potassium chloride intravenously to a client with hypokalemia. Which action is most important?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate
- B. Check the client's urine output
- C. Administer the potassium chloride as a rapid IV push
- D. Dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to dilute the potassium chloride in an appropriate IV solution. Potassium chloride should never be administered as a rapid IV push as it can lead to severe complications, including cardiac arrhythmias. Diluting the medication and administering it slowly helps reduce the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring the client's respiratory rate (Choice A) and checking urine output (Choice B) are important aspects of patient assessment but not the most crucial when administering potassium chloride. Administering potassium chloride as a rapid IV push (Choice C) is dangerous and can result in serious harm to the client.
4. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?
- A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
- B. Muscle atrophy
- C. Pressure injury
- D. Fecal impaction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
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