HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
- D. Crepitus around the insertion site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.
2. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Akathisia
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
- B. Elevate the left leg above the level of the heart.
- C. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
- D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.
4. A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the LPN have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?
- A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited.
- B. Blood transfusions are forbidden.
- C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed.
- D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Blood transfusions are forbidden.' Jehovah's Witnesses typically refuse blood transfusions due to their religious beliefs. This is crucial for the LPN to consider when planning the client's care to ensure that alternative treatments are explored. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific beliefs and practices of Jehovah's Witnesses. Autopsy prohibition, alcohol use restrictions, and dietary preferences are not primary concerns related to the religious beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses.
5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
- B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
- C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
- D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.
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