Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?

• A. Directly address the child instead of the mother.
• B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child.
• C. Request another nurse to interview the mother now.
• D. Politely ask the mother to look at you when answering.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

3. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?

• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Whole grain bread
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.

5. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

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