Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notices that the mother of a 9-year-old Vietnamese child always looks at the floor when she talks to the nurse. What action should the LPN take?

• A. Directly address the child instead of the mother.
• B. Continue asking the mother questions about the child.
• C. Request another nurse to interview the mother now.
• D. Politely ask the mother to look at you when answering.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?

• A. Dry gauze dressing
• B. Wet-to-dry dressing
• C. Transparent film dressing
• D. Hydrocolloid dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.

3. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

4. During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
• B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
• C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
• D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.

5. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

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