HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
2. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?
- A. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
- B. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily.
- C. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use.
- D. Maintaining sterile technique when handling the catheter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.
3. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance in time.
- B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.
- C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns.
- D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.
4. Upon admission to the hospital, a client presents with decreased circulation in the left leg. What is the most important initial nursing action during the assessment?
- A. Assess the client's mobility
- B. Evaluate the pedal pulses
- C. Monitor skin temperature
- D. Check for swelling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is admitted with decreased circulation in the left leg, the most critical initial nursing action is to evaluate the pedal pulses. Pedal pulses provide essential information about the circulation status in the affected leg. Assessing the client's mobility (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as evaluating pedal pulses in this scenario. Monitoring skin temperature (Choice C) and checking for swelling (Choice D) are also relevant, but they are secondary to evaluating pedal pulses since the latter directly assesses the circulation in the affected limb.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
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