Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

2. A nurse is caring for a group of clients. How should the nurse prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Place a client with TB in a negative pressure room.
• B. Use standard precautions only.
• C. Place a client with TB in a private room.
• D. Use barrier precautions only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a client with TB in a negative pressure room. Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease, and placing the client in a negative pressure room helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing and filtering the air within the room. Standard precautions (Choice B) are important for preventing the spread of infection in general, but specific precautions are needed for airborne diseases like TB. Placing the client in a private room (Choice C) may not provide adequate ventilation and containment of airborne pathogens. Using barrier precautions (Choice D) alone is not sufficient for preventing the airborne transmission of TB.

3. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. “Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed.”
• B. “Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom.”
• C. “Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy.”
• D. “Remove clocks from the client’s room.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity is an effective non-restraint intervention for managing confused clients. It helps reduce agitation, promotes circulation, and may decrease the need for restraints. Choice A is incorrect as using full-length side rails can potentially restrict a client's movement, which is counterproductive to avoiding restraints. Choice B, while emphasizing monitoring, does not directly address alternatives to restraint use. Choice D is also incorrect as removing clocks from the client's room does not directly address managing confusion and reducing the need for restraints.

4. A client scheduled for abdominal surgery reports being worried. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Offer information on a relaxation technique and ask if the client is interested in trying it.
• B. Request a social worker to see the client to discuss meditation.
• C. Attempt to use biofeedback techniques with the client.
• D. Tell the client many people feel the same way before surgery and to think of something else.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering relaxation techniques addresses the client's immediate concern by providing a proactive approach to managing anxiety. It shows empathy and offers a practical solution. Requesting a social worker for meditation (Choice B) may not be the most direct response to the client's immediate worry. Attempting biofeedback (Choice C) may not be suitable without the client's interest or consent. Telling the client to think of something else (Choice D) dismisses the client's feelings and does not provide constructive support.

5. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Perform a bladder scan to assess for urinary retention.
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• C. Insert a straight catheter to drain the bladder.
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

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