Nursing Elites

1. Nurse talking with a client’s partner. She is having frustrations about managing responsibilities and care. What type of role performance stress is this?

• A. Role overload
• B. Role conflict
• C. Role ambiguity
• D. Role strain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Role overload occurs when a person feels overwhelmed by the demands placed upon them.

2. A healthcare provider is delegating client care to assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks should the healthcare provider delegate?

• A. Evaluating healing of an incision
• B. Inserting an NG Tube
• C. Performing a simple dressing change
• D. Changing IV tubing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that a healthcare provider should delegate to assistive personnel is performing a simple dressing change. Assistive personnel are trained and competent in performing basic wound care activities like simple dressing changes. Evaluating the healing of an incision requires clinical judgment and assessment skills that are typically performed by licensed healthcare professionals, such as nurses or physicians. Inserting an NG tube and changing IV tubing involve invasive procedures that require specialized training and skills, making them tasks that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers rather than assistive personnel.

3. When assessing a client's IV for infiltration, which finding would be unexpected for the nurse?

• A. The area around the infusion site feels warm to the touch.
• B. The infusion site is swollen and cool to the touch.
• C. The infusion line does not flush properly.
• D. There is no blood return in the infusion line.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warmth around the infusion site is not an expected finding with infiltration. Infiltration typically presents with swelling and coolness due to the fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because swelling, coolness, and difficulty flushing the line, as well as lack of blood return, are commonly associated with infiltration.

4. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?

• A. Pallor
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Jaundice
• D. Erythema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

Similar Questions