HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. Nurse talking with a client’s partner. She is having frustrations about managing responsibilities and care. What type of role performance stress is this?
- A. Role overload
- B. Role conflict
- C. Role ambiguity
- D. Role strain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Role overload occurs when a person feels overwhelmed by the demands placed upon them.
2. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
- B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
- C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
- D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
3. During a peripheral vascular assessment, a healthcare professional places the bell of the stethoscope on a client's neck and hears an audible vascular sound associated with turbulent blood flow. This sound indicates which of the following?
- A. Narrowed arterial lumen
- B. Distended jugular veins
- C. Impaired ventricular contraction
- D. Asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Narrowed arterial lumen. Arterial bruits are abnormal sounds caused by turbulent blood flow through narrowed or occluded arteries. This turbulent flow creates a blowing sound, which is heard as an arterial bruit. Distended jugular veins (choice B) are typically associated with venous issues, not arterial abnormalities. Impaired ventricular contraction (choice C) and asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve (choice D) are not directly related to the audible vascular sound described in the scenario.
4. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?
- A. You should comply with the request
- B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
- C. I will call your family to discuss this
- D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.
5. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?
- A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
- B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
- C. Warts on the affected ankle
- D. 2+ pitting edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.
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