HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?
- A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- C. Normal bowel sounds
- D. High-pitched bowel sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.
2. During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?
- A. Calf swelling
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Generalized rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.
3. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.
4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
- C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
- D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.
5. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.
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