Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

2. The patient has been brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The patient is unresponsive. The driver's license states that glasses are needed to operate a motor vehicle, but no glasses were brought in with the patient. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea.
• B. Conclude that the glasses were lost during the accident.
• C. Notify the ambulance personnel about the missing glasses.
• D. Ask the patient where the glasses are.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should stand to the side of the patient's eye and observe the cornea. This action is crucial in assessing whether the patient wears contact lenses, especially in unresponsive patients. Observing the cornea can provide valuable information about the patient's eye health and potential use of contact lenses. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Concluding that the glasses were lost during the accident is premature without proper assessment. Notifying ambulance personnel about the missing glasses may not be the immediate priority, and asking the unresponsive patient about the glasses would not yield useful information in this situation.

3. A client is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of congestive heart failure. Which of the following assessments would the nurse expect to be consistent with this problem?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Pallor
• C. Inspiratory crackles
• D. Heart murmur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspiratory crackles are a common finding in patients with congestive heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to crackling sounds during inspiration. Chest pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like angina or myocardial infarction and is not a typical symptom of congestive heart failure. Pallor (Choice B) is a general symptom of various conditions and not specific to congestive heart failure. While a heart murmur (Choice D) may be heard in some cases of congestive heart failure, it is not as consistent as inspiratory crackles in indicating the condition.

4. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the infusion rate
• C. Administer a bolus of fluid
• D. Replace the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

5. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

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