HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client's ability to balance. Which of the following actions is appropriate when the healthcare provider conducts a Romberg test?
- A. Ask the client to extend their arms in front of their body.
- B. Ask the client to walk in a straight line heel to toe.
- C. Have the client stand with their feet together.
- D. Have the client place their hands on their hips.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Romberg test is a neurological test that assesses proprioception and balance. To perform this test, the client is asked to stand with their feet together and arms at their sides while closing their eyes. By removing visual input, the test challenges the vestibular and proprioceptive systems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the proper procedure for conducting the Romberg test. Extending arms in front, walking heel to toe, or placing hands on hips are not part of the Romberg test protocol and may introduce variables that could affect the assessment of balance.
3. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
4. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most appropriate?
- A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
- B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
- C. Encourage the wife to visit during the treatment process
- D. Refer her to a support group for family members of those with terminal cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, it is crucial to involve the wife in the care of the client to provide support and empower her. Asking the wife how she would like to participate allows her to be actively involved in decision-making and caregiving. Providing information about hospice (choice B) might be premature as the couple may still be digesting the diagnosis. Encouraging the wife to visit during the treatment process (choice C) may not address her immediate need for involvement and support. Referring her to a support group for family members (choice D) is helpful but involving her directly in the client's care is a more immediate and personalized approach.
5. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Measure the client's urine output.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
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