Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery has an eviscerated wound. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing.
• B. Notify the surgeon immediately.
• C. Assess the client's vital signs.
• D. Place the client in a supine position with knees bent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take after discovering a client's eviscerated wound is to cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing. This step is crucial to protect the exposed tissue, prevent infection, and create a conducive environment for healing. While notifying the surgeon is important, addressing the wound immediately takes precedence. Assessing vital signs is essential but should follow the immediate intervention of covering the wound. Placing the client in a supine position with knees bent is not the priority in managing an eviscerated wound; the first step is to cover the wound to protect the exposed tissue.

3. What will ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed?

• A. Place the pillow under the patient's head and shoulders.
• B. Attempt to do it alone if the bed is in a flat position.
• C. Place the side rails in the up position.
• D. Use a friction-reducing device.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure the safe movement of a patient who is unable to move and needs to be pulled up in bed, it is essential to use a friction-reducing device. This device helps reduce the risk of injury to both the patient and the healthcare provider by minimizing the effort required to reposition the patient. Placing a pillow under the patient's head and shoulders (Choice A) may provide comfort but does not address the safety concerns associated with moving the patient. Attempting to move the patient alone (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries for both the patient and the healthcare provider. Placing the side rails in the up position (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the safe movement of the patient in this scenario.

4. A nurse manager is reviewing with nurses on the unit the care of a client who has had a seizure. Which of the following statements by a nurse requires further instruction?

• A. “I will place the client on their side.”
• B. “I will go to the nurses’ station for assistance.”
• C. “I will note the time that the seizure begins.”
• D. “I will prepare to insert an airway.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Going to the nurses’ station for assistance during a seizure is inappropriate as immediate care is necessary. Placing the client on their side helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration. Noting the time the seizure begins is crucial for monitoring and documentation. Preparing to insert an airway may be necessary if the client's airway becomes compromised. Therefore, the nurse's statement about going to the nurses' station for assistance is the only incorrect response as it delays essential care.

5. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

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