Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

3. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

4. A nurse in a long-term care facility is admitting a client who is incontinent and smells strongly of urine. His partner, who has been caring for him at home, is embarrassed and apologizes for the smell. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. "It must be difficult to care for someone who is confined to bed."
• B. "It is important to keep the client clean to avoid infections."
• C. "I understand that this is challenging; let’s work together to ensure comfort."
• D. "The smell is quite strong; we need to address this immediately."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: "I understand that this is challenging; let’s work together to ensure comfort." This response acknowledges the difficulty the partner is facing, shows empathy, and offers to collaborate in providing care. Choice A is incorrect because it does not directly address the partner's feelings of embarrassment or offer support. Choice B, while true, does not address the partner's emotional state and may come across as directive rather than supportive. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses solely on the smell without addressing the partner's emotions or offering assistance in managing the situation with empathy.

5. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

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