Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
• C. Decrease in blood pressure
• D. Increase in respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.

3. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

4. When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Clean the skin around the stoma with normal saline.
• B. Secure the tracheostomy ties with two fingers' width underneath.
• C. Soak the outer cannula in warm tap water.
• D. Use a cotton tip applicator to clean the inside of the inner cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client with a tracheostomy, the nurse should clean the skin around the stoma with normal saline to prevent infection and ensure cleanliness. This action helps in maintaining skin integrity and preventing skin breakdown. Securing the tracheostomy ties with two fingers' width underneath is essential to allow for proper fit, prevent skin irritation, and ensure the ties are not too tight. Soaking the outer cannula in warm tap water is not recommended as it can lead to contamination and is not a standard practice. Using a cotton tip applicator to clean the inside of the inner cannula is discouraged as it can leave fibers behind, increasing the risk of aspiration and respiratory complications.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

• A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
• B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
• C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
• D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

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