HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Hourly urine output
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
- D. Temperature every 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
2. When caring for a client at the end of life, which statement by the client’s partner reflects effective coping?
- A. I am relying on support from our family during this time.
- B. I am feeling overwhelmed but don’t want to talk about it.
- C. I am managing everything on my own without help.
- D. I prefer to stay alone with my partner.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am relying on support from our family during this time.' When a client is at the end of life, relying on support from family can be an effective coping mechanism. It allows the partner to share the emotional burden, seek comfort, and prevent feelings of isolation. Choice B reflects a reluctance to express feelings, which can hinder coping mechanisms by internalizing stress. Choice C suggests handling everything alone, which can lead to burnout and emotional strain due to the overwhelming responsibilities. Choice D, preferring to stay alone with the partner, may limit access to external support that could provide additional emotional and practical assistance during this challenging time, making it a less effective coping strategy.
3. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Erythema along the path of the vein
- B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
- C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
- D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.
4. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?
- A. Identify the client using two identifiers
- B. Confirm the client's fasting status
- C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
- D. Explain the procedure to the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.
5. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?
- A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
- B. Infection at the surgical site
- C. Fluid overload
- D. Inadequate pain management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.
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