Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

2. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Urine specific gravity
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

4. Which action is most important for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves?

• A. Maintain thumbs at a ninety-degree angle.
• B. Hold hands with fingers pointing downward while gloving.
• C. Keep gloved hands above the elbows.
• D. Put the glove on the dominant hand first.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial action for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves is to keep gloved hands above the elbows. This practice is essential to prevent potential contamination and maintain a sterile field. Choices A, maintaining thumbs at a ninety-degree angle, and B, holding hands with fingers pointing downward while gloving, are not as critical as keeping hands above the elbows for maintaining sterility. Choice D, putting the glove on the dominant hand first, is not as important as ensuring that gloved hands are kept above the elbows to maintain sterility.

5. A nurse is reviewing nutritional guidelines with the parents of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following parent statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I should keep feeding my son whole milk until he is 3 years old.”
• B. “It’s okay for me to give my son a cup of apple juice with each meal.”
• C. “I’ll give my son about 2 tablespoons of each food at mealtimes.”
• D. “My son loves popcorn, and I know it is better for him than sweets.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Offering a variety of foods in small portions is appropriate for a 2-year-old toddler as it helps provide balanced nutrition and allows the child to explore different tastes and textures. Choice A is incorrect because whole milk is recommended up to 2 years old, not until 3 years old. Choice B is incorrect as excessive juice intake can lead to excessive sugar consumption and is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as popcorn may pose a choking hazard for toddlers and is not a suitable alternative to sweets.

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