Nursing Elites

1. Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
• B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site.
• C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
• D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice (D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. The body's receptors adjust to the constant heat exposure, leading to a decreased sensation of warmth. Choices (A) and (B) provide inaccurate information regarding the situation, while choice (C) is not physiologically sound and could potentially harm the client by increasing the temperature unnecessarily.

2. After insertion of the indwelling catheter, how should the nurse position the drainage container?

• A. With the drainage tubing taut to maintain maximum suction on the urinary bladder.
• B. Lower than the bladder to maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder.
• C. At the head of the bed for easy and accurate measurement of urine.
• D. Beside the patient in their bed to avoid embarrassment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct position for the drainage container after inserting an indwelling catheter is to have it placed lower than the bladder. This positioning helps maintain a constant downward flow of urine from the bladder, preventing backflow and ensuring proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because having the drainage tubing taut does not promote proper urine flow and may cause kinking. Choice C is incorrect as placing the container at the head of the bed does not affect drainage and is not necessary for accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the positioning of the drainage container should prioritize proper drainage and care over potential embarrassment.

3. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

4. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

• A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
• B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
• C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
• D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

5. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

Similar Questions