Nursing Elites

1. Twenty minutes after beginning a heat application, the client states that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. That means you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
• B. Your blood vessels are becoming dilated and removing the heat from the site.
• C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
• D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice (D) describes thermal adaptation, which occurs 20 to 30 minutes after heat application. The body's receptors adjust to the constant heat exposure, leading to a decreased sensation of warmth. Choices (A) and (B) provide inaccurate information regarding the situation, while choice (C) is not physiologically sound and could potentially harm the client by increasing the temperature unnecessarily.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin IV.
• B. Administer IV fluids at 250 ml/hr.
• C. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV push.
• D. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

3. When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take first?

• A. Divert the client’s attention
• B. Call for additional help from staff
• C. Document the planned action
• D. Re-assess the client's situation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before providing care to an anxious client, it is crucial for the nurse to first re-assess the client's situation. By re-assessing, the nurse can understand the underlying cause of the client's anxiety, which will help in tailoring appropriate care interventions. Re-assessment ensures that care provided is individualized and addresses the client's specific needs, promoting effective and client-centered care delivery. Diverting the client’s attention (Choice A) may not address the root cause of the anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) may be necessary in some situations but should not be the first action. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after re-assessing the client's situation to ensure accurate documentation based on the current assessment.

4. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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