Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
• B. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• C. Ensure the catheter is clamped when not in use.
• D. Maintain sterile technique when handling the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important for overall catheter care, does not directly address infection prevention. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily is essential for maintaining patency but does not primarily prevent infections. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is important for preventing air embolism but is not the most critical action to prevent infection. The most effective way to prevent infections is by strictly adhering to sterile techniques during catheter handling, which minimizes the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter site.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Apple
• C. Rice
• D. Banana

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

• A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
• B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
• C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
• D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

5. During a peripheral vascular assessment, a healthcare professional places the bell of the stethoscope on a client's neck and hears an audible vascular sound associated with turbulent blood flow. This sound indicates which of the following?

• A. Narrowed arterial lumen
• B. Distended jugular veins
• C. Impaired ventricular contraction
• D. Asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Narrowed arterial lumen. Arterial bruits are abnormal sounds caused by turbulent blood flow through narrowed or occluded arteries. This turbulent flow creates a blowing sound, which is heard as an arterial bruit. Distended jugular veins (choice B) are typically associated with venous issues, not arterial abnormalities. Impaired ventricular contraction (choice C) and asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valve (choice D) are not directly related to the audible vascular sound described in the scenario.

Similar Questions