Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a central venous catheter. What is the most important action for the nurse to take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
• B. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• C. Ensure the catheter is clamped when not in use.
• D. Maintain sterile technique when handling the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important for overall catheter care, does not directly address infection prevention. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily is essential for maintaining patency but does not primarily prevent infections. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is important for preventing air embolism but is not the most critical action to prevent infection. The most effective way to prevent infections is by strictly adhering to sterile techniques during catheter handling, which minimizes the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter site.

2. A nurse is admitting a client who has an abdominal wound with a large amount of purulent drainage. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Protective environment
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Contact precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Contact precautions. When a client has an abdominal wound with purulent drainage, contact precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infection through direct contact. Protective environment precautions are used for immunocompromised clients, airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, and droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by respiratory droplets. In this case, the focus is on preventing direct contact transmission, making contact precautions the most appropriate choice. Protective environment, airborne, and droplet precautions are not indicated in this scenario because the primary concern is the direct contact transmission of pathogens through the wound drainage.

3. A 3-year-old child diagnosed with celiac disease attends a daycare center. Which of the following would be an appropriate snack?

• A. Cheese crackers
• B. Peanut butter sandwich
• C. Potato chips
• D. Vanilla cookies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is potato chips. As a child with celiac disease needs to avoid gluten, potato chips are a suitable snack choice as they are typically gluten-free. Cheese crackers (Choice A) and vanilla cookies (Choice D) contain gluten, which should be avoided by individuals with celiac disease. While peanut butter sandwiches (Choice B) could be gluten-free depending on the bread used, it is not the best choice as cross-contamination is a concern in shared environments like daycare centers.

4. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

5. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.

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