Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with psoriasis. What behavior by the nurse addresses this client's psychosocial need for acceptance?

• A. Wearing gloves when providing care to the client
• B. Encouraging the client to join a support group
• C. Shaking hands with the client during an introduction
• D. Allowing the client to express their feelings openly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to join a support group is the best option to address the client's psychosocial need for acceptance. Support groups provide a sense of belonging, understanding, and acceptance from peers who share similar experiences. This helps the client feel accepted despite their condition. Wearing gloves when providing care, shaking hands during an introduction, and allowing the client to express feelings openly are important but do not directly address the client's need for acceptance.

2. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

3. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. The heart will stop beating, and you will stop breathing.
• B. You will go to sleep and not wake up.
• C. Your body will stop functioning, and you will no longer feel pain.
• D. You will feel very tired, and your body will shut down slowly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.

4. Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. All future children will be carriers, but will not necessarily have the disease
• B. There is a chance that each future child will have the disease
• C. Only male children cannot inherit the sickle cell disease trait
• D. Only one out of four of their children will definitely manifest the disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.

5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

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