HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A nurse who works in the nursery is attending the vaginal delivery of a term infant. What action should the nurse complete before leaving the delivery room?
- A. Obtain the infant's vital signs.
- B. Observe the infant latching onto the breast.
- C. Administer a vitamin K injection.
- D. Place the ID bands on the infant and mother.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing ID bands on the infant and mother is crucial to ensure correct identification and prevent mix-ups. This step is essential for maintaining proper identification of the newborn and the mother, facilitating safe care delivery. Before leaving the delivery room, ensuring proper identification is a priority to prevent any errors. Obtaining the infant's vital signs may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring correct identification. Observing the infant latching onto the breast is crucial for breastfeeding initiation but can be done after proper identification. Administering a vitamin K injection is also important but should not delay the immediate identification process.
2. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
- B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
- C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
- D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.
3. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Recent serum cholesterol levels
- B. Presence of calf pain during exercise
- C. Average weight gain or loss in the last year
- D. Exercise tolerance test with EKG results
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.
4. A female client is admitted for a diabetic crisis resulting from inadequate dietary practices. After stabilization, the nurse talks to the client about her prescribed diet. What client characteristic is most important for successful adherence to the diabetic diet?
- A. Understands the importance of timing insulin administration 30 minutes before eating
- B. Frequently includes fruits and vegetables in meals and snacks
- C. Has access to someone who can assist with meal preparation and monitoring
- D. Demonstrates willingness to consistently follow the prescribed diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial characteristic for successful adherence to a diabetic diet is the client's willingness to consistently follow the prescribed diet plan. Option A, understanding insulin timing, is important for treatment but not directly related to dietary adherence. Option B, consuming fruits and vegetables, is a healthy practice but does not ensure adherence to a specific diabetic diet. Option C, having assistance with meal preparation, is beneficial but not as essential as the client's personal commitment to adhering to the diet consistently.
5. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
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