HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. The nurse instructs an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to turn an immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter every two hours. What additional action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take each time the client is turned?
- A. Empty the urinary drainage bag
- B. Feed the client a snack
- C. Offer the client oral fluids
- D. Assess the breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct additional action the nurse should instruct the UAP to take each time the immobilized elderly client with an indwelling urinary catheter is turned is to empty the urinary drainage bag. This action helps to prevent backflow of urine, reduces the risk of infection, and prevents bladder distention, which are crucial for the client's comfort and health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the care of a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Feeding a snack, offering oral fluids, or assessing breath sounds are important aspects of care but not the immediate action needed when turning a client with an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent complications.
2. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
3. A client who is scheduled to have surgery in two hours tells the nurse, 'My doctor was here and used a lot of big words about the surgery, then asked me to sign a paper.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the client that pre-surgery anxiety is a normal experience
- B. Explain the surgery in clear terms that the client can understand
- C. Call the surgeon back to clarify the information with the client
- D. Redirect the client’s thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to explain the surgery to the client in clear terms that they can understand. This will help alleviate the client's anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about the procedure they are about to undergo. Choice A is incorrect because while reassurance is important, it does not address the client's specific concern about understanding the surgery. Choice C is not the initial step; the nurse should first attempt to clarify the information themselves. Choice D is not the priority when the client is seeking clarification about the surgery.
4. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
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