HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Begin client education about positive inotropic medications.
- B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cardiac catheterization.
- D. Monitor serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.
2. A client is admitted for an exacerbation of heart failure (HF) and is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess. In planning nursing care, which interventions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Encourage oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day
- B. Observe for evidence of hypokalemia
- C. Teach the client how to restrict dietary sodium
- D. Monitor PTT, PT, and INR lab values
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct interventions to include when a client with heart failure is being treated with diuretics for fluid volume excess are to observe for evidence of hypokalemia. Diuretics can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for this electrolyte imbalance is crucial. Encouraging oral fluid intake of 3,000 ml/day may exacerbate fluid volume excess in a client with heart failure. Teaching the client how to restrict dietary sodium is important in managing heart failure, but it is not directly related to the use of diuretics for fluid volume excess. Monitoring PTT, PT, and INR lab values is not typically associated with diuretic therapy for heart failure but rather with anticoagulant therapy.
3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?
- A. Right lower abdominal pain
- B. Confusion
- C. Depression
- D. Peripheral neuropathy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.
4. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?
- A. capillary glucose
- B. urine specific gravity
- C. Serum calcium
- D. white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.
5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Headache
- B. Pruritus
- C. Nausea
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
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