the nurse is assessing a client with left sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea the nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in a the nurse is assessing a client with left sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea the nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in a
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure who reports nocturia and dyspnea. The nurse identifies pulsus alternans and crackles in all lung fields. Which action is best to include in the client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of left-sided heart failure, such as dyspnea, nocturia, pulsus alternans, and crackles in all lung fields. Positive inotropic medications are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure to improve cardiac contractility and output. Therefore, beginning client education about positive inotropic medications is the best action to include in the client's plan of care. Choice B is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not indicated in the management of left-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as emergency cardiac catheterization is not typically the initial intervention for left-sided heart failure. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels is more pertinent to assessing for myocardial infarction rather than managing heart failure.

2. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

3. A client who is receiving general anesthesia begins to demonstrate symptoms of malignant hyperthermia. Which intervention should the perioperative nurse prepare to implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare for cessation of the anesthesia and the surgical procedure. Malignant hyperthermia is a severe reaction to certain medications used during general anesthesia. The immediate intervention to manage malignant hyperthermia is to stop the triggering agents, which include anesthesia and surgery. Ensuring patency of an indwelling catheter and measuring intake and output, obtaining specimens of ABGs and serum electrolytes, and initiating cooling measures are important interventions but should follow the immediate action of stopping the anesthesia and surgery to address the life-threatening condition of malignant hyperthermia.

4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child with Addison's disease. What would the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In Addison's disease, adrenal insufficiency leads to decreased aldosterone production. This results in impaired sodium retention and potassium excretion, leading to hyperkalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia (choice B). Hypernatremia (choice A) is less likely because of the loss of sodium in Addison's disease. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Addison's disease and are less likely to be present in this condition.

5. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

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