HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. A client with a prescription for “do not resuscitate” (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client’s status, what priority action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client’s need for pain medication
- B. Document the impending signs of death
- C. Inform the nurse manager of the client’s status
- D. Communicate the client’s status to the chaplain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client’s need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.
2. What nursing intervention is most important to implement after a client has completed a myelogram?
- A. Lie-sit-stand blood pressure measurement
- B. Abdominal assessment for distention and bowel sounds
- C. Neurovascular assessment of lower extremities
- D. Assessment of skin temperature and turgor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neurovascular assessment of the lower extremities. After a myelogram, it is crucial to monitor the neurovascular status to detect any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. This assessment helps in identifying early signs of vascular compromise or neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority after a myelogram. Lie-sit-stand blood pressure measurement is not directly related to post-myelogram care. Abdominal assessment and skin assessment are important but not the priority immediately after this procedure.
3. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
- B. Weight the client every morning
- C. Maintain accurate intake and output
- D. Administer prescribed diuretic
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.
4. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?
- A. Ensure the partner is screened for chlamydia
- B. Report any signs of liver dysfunction immediately
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while on this medication
- D. Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.
5. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?
- A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
- B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
- C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
- D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.
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