Nursing Elites

1. A client with a prescription for “do not resuscitate” (DNR) begins to manifest signs of impending death. After notifying the family of the client’s status, what priority action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess the client’s need for pain medication
• B. Document the impending signs of death
• C. Inform the nurse manager of the client’s status
• D. Communicate the client’s status to the chaplain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client’s need for pain medication is the priority action as it ensures comfort at the end of life. Pain management is crucial in providing comfort and dignity to clients during their final moments. Documenting impending signs of death (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority over addressing the client's comfort. Updating the nurse manager (choice C) and informing the chaplain (choice D) can follow once the client's immediate needs are met.

2. The nurse assesses an older adult who is newly admitted to a long-term care facility. The client has dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails. The client has a medical history of a stroke which resulted in left-sided paralysis and dysphagia. In planning care for the client, which task should the nurse delegate to the unlicensed personnel (UAP)?

• A. Soak and file fingernails
• B. Offer fluids frequently
• C. Monitor skin elasticity
• D. Ambulate in the hallway

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Soaking and filing fingernails is a task that can be delegated to UAP. This task does not require specialized nursing skills and can be safely performed by unlicensed personnel. Offering fluids frequently, monitoring skin elasticity, and ambulating require more skilled assessments and interventions, which are responsibilities of the nurse. The client's dry, flaky skin and long thickened fingernails indicate the need for basic hygiene care, making it appropriate for delegation to unlicensed personnel.

3. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

4. When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Protect the medication from light exposure
• B. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
• C. Observe for onset of generalized bruising or bleeding
• D. Perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.

5. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?

• A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
• B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
• C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.

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