Nursing Elites

1. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

• A. capillary glucose
• B. urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.

2. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?

• A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
• B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
• C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
• D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

3. What assessment data should lead the nurse to suspect that a client has progressed from HIV infection to AIDS?

• A. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes
• B. Presence of low-grade fever and sore throat
• C. Recent history of recurrent pneumonia
• D. CD4 blood cell count of 300

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Recent history of recurrent pneumonia.' Recurrent pneumonia is a hallmark indicator of progression to AIDS in clients with HIV infection. It signifies advanced immunosuppression when the body is unable to fight off infections effectively. Enlarged and tender cervical lymph nodes (Choice A) are more indicative of local infections or inflammation rather than AIDS progression. The presence of a low-grade fever and sore throat (Choice B) may be common in various infections and are not specific to AIDS progression. While a CD4 blood cell count of 300 (Choice D) is below the normal range and indicates immunosuppression, it alone may not be sufficient to suspect progression to AIDS without other supporting indicators like opportunistic infections such as recurrent pneumonia.

4. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

• A. Note date and time of the behavior.
• B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
• C. Plan for scheduled break times.
• D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

5. The nurse has explained safety precautions and infant care to a primigravida mother and observes the mother as she gives care to her newborn during the first two days of rooming-in. Which action indicates the mother understands the instruction?

• A. Aspirates the newborn’s nares using a syringe
• B. Applies a dressing to the cord after the newborn’s bath
• C. Breastfeeds the infant every hour during the night
• D. Positions the infant supine in the crib to sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant supine in the crib to sleep is the correct action that indicates the mother understands the instruction. This position is recommended to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect as it is not a routine or recommended practice to aspirate the newborn’s nares using a syringe without a specific medical indication. Choice B is incorrect because applying a dressing to the cord after the newborn's bath is not a standard care practice. Choice C is incorrect because breastfeeding every hour during the night is excessive and not a recommended feeding schedule for a newborn.

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