HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
- B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
- C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
- D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
2. When implementing a disaster intervention plan, which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Initiate the discharge of stable clients from hospital units
- B. Identify a command center where activities are coordinated
- C. Assess community safety needs impacted by the disaster
- D. Instruct all essential off-duty personnel to report to the facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When implementing a disaster intervention plan, the first step the nurse should take is to identify a command center where activities are coordinated. This step is crucial for ensuring an organized and effective disaster response. Option A, initiating the discharge of stable clients, is not a priority during the initial phase of disaster response. Option C, assessing community safety needs, usually follows setting up a command center. Option D, instructing off-duty personnel to report, may be necessary but is not the primary intervention at the beginning of a disaster situation.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled, “Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml.†How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 12.5
- B. 7.5
- C. 10.0
- D. 15.0
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount in ml that the nurse should administer every 8 hours, first, determine the amount of amoxicillin needed per dose. 1.5 grams daily divided by 3 doses equals 0.5 grams per dose. Since 0.5 grams is equivalent to 500 mg (1 gram = 1000 mg), and each 5 ml of the suspension contains 200 mg of amoxicillin, the nurse needs to administer (500 mg / 200 mg) * 5 ml = 12.5 ml every 8 hours. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
4. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?
- A. Cheddar cheese and crackers
- B. Carrot and celery sticks
- C. Beef bologna sausage slices
- D. Dry roasted almonds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Dry roasted almonds are the most suitable snack option for a client with chronic alcoholism and a decreased serum magnesium level because they are high in magnesium. Magnesium is essential in addressing the deficiency. Cheddar cheese and crackers (Choice A) do not contain as much magnesium as almonds. Carrot and celery sticks (Choice B) are healthy choices but do not provide a significant amount of magnesium. Beef bologna sausage slices (Choice C) are not a good choice as processed meats are not rich in magnesium.
5. The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. An older client receiving packed RBCs on the third day postoperatively for colon resection
- B. An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery
- C. An adult one day postoperatively from laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
- D. An adult in Buck’s traction, scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with continuous bladder irrigation post-bladder surgery is at risk for complications like infection or bleeding. This client requires immediate attention to assess for any signs of complications such as urinary retention, hemorrhage, or infection. Choices A, C, and D have less urgent needs compared to a client with continuous bladder irrigation, which requires priority assessment.
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