HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
2. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?
- A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
- B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
- C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
- D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.
3. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetentâ€. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
4. An infant is receiving penicillin G procaine 220,000 units IM. The drug is supplied as 600,000 units/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 0.4
- B.
- C.
- D.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose (220,000 units) / Dose on hand (600,000 units) x Volume of the available dose (1 ml). This results in 0.4 ml to be administered. Choice A is correct. Choice B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not provided.
5. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
- A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
- B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
- C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
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