HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
2. The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Encourage the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision
- B. Suggest that the child be encouraged to participate in a team sport to promote socialization
- C. Explain that their child is not mature enough to understand the risks associated with swimming
- D. Provide a list of alternative activities that are less likely to cause the child to experience fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.
3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assist the client in conserving energy during daily activities
- B. Explain to the client that this could be a side effect of the medication
- C. Assess the client for pallor
- D. Encourage the client to maintain a balanced diet and hydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.
4. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
- B. Full volume of pedal pulse
- C. Reduced level of pain
- D. Improved visual activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
5. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?
- A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
- B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
- C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
- D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.
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