Nursing Elites

1. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

2. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a practical nurse (PN). Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM)
• B. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty
• C. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy
• D. Initiate patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pumps for two clients immediately postoperative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obtaining postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty is a task within the scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN) and contributes to the client's recovery. Administering insulin (Choice A) involves medication administration, which typically requires a higher level of nursing education. Performing daily surgical dressing changes (Choice C) after an abdominal hysterectomy involves wound care management that is usually beyond the scope of practice for a PN. Initiating patient-controlled analgesia pumps (Choice D) is a complex nursing intervention that requires specialized training and knowledge, exceeding the typical responsibilities of a PN.

3. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
• B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
• C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
• D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.

4. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?

• A. Inability to touch their toes
• B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
• C. Audible crepitus when bending
• D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.

5. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?

• A. Ensure the partner is screened for chlamydia
• B. Report any signs of liver dysfunction immediately
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while on this medication
• D. Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.

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