HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has developed ascites. What is the most important intervention to include in the care plan?
- A. Restrict sodium intake
- B. Encourage high-protein meals
- C. Increase fluid intake
- D. Administer diuretics as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer diuretics as prescribed. Diuretics are often prescribed to help manage fluid accumulation in ascites, which is a common complication of cirrhosis. Restricting sodium intake (Choice A) is essential in managing ascites, but administering diuretics takes precedence in the care plan. Encouraging high-protein meals (Choice B) and increasing fluid intake (Choice C) are not the primary interventions for managing ascites in cirrhosis.
2. During the assessment of a client who has suffered a stroke, what finding would indicate a complication?
- A. Difficulty swallowing
- B. A slight headache
- C. High blood pressure
- D. Muscle weakness on one side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) can indicate complications such as aspiration risk, which is common after a stroke due to impaired swallowing reflexes. It poses a serious threat to the client's respiratory system. Options B, C, and D are less likely to indicate immediate complications post-stroke. A slight headache is a common complaint and may not necessarily indicate a complication. High blood pressure is a known risk factor for strokes but may not be an immediate post-stroke complication unless it is severely elevated. Muscle weakness on one side is a common sign of stroke but may not directly indicate a new complication.
3. The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?
- A. The IV fluids are infusing into the subcutaneous tissues
- B. The infusion pump is functioning properly
- C. The insertion date should be verified and the IV discontinued
- D. The site is inflamed and should be reported
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness at the IV site without swelling indicate a localized reaction, which is common and does not necessarily indicate infiltration of IV fluids into the subcutaneous tissues. The absence of swelling suggests that the IV is correctly placed. Therefore, the nurse should conclude that the infusion pump is functioning properly. Choice A is incorrect as warmth and redness alone do not indicate subcutaneous infiltration. Choice C is incorrect as discontinuing the IV solely based on warmth and redness without swelling is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the absence of swelling signifies a localized reaction rather than inflammation requiring immediate reporting.
4. A client with diabetes exhibits a blood sugar of 350 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Provide a carbohydrate-controlled snack
- C. Encourage physical activity
- D. Recheck the blood sugar
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with diabetes presenting with a blood sugar level of 350 mg/dL, the best action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. High blood sugar levels can lead to complications like diabetic ketoacidosis, making prompt insulin administration crucial to lower the blood glucose level. Providing a carbohydrate-controlled snack would be inappropriate as it may further elevate blood sugar levels. Encouraging physical activity is not advisable when the blood sugar is significantly high, as exercise can raise blood sugar levels. Rechecking the blood sugar is necessary after administering insulin to monitor the response to treatment.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' Clients prescribed SSRIs should be educated to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly, as these medications can initially increase suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect because SSRIs are usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as it takes several weeks for SSRIs to reach their full effectiveness. Choice C is irrelevant to SSRI therapy.
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