HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.
2. To assess pedal pulses, which arterial sites should the nurse palpate? (Select all that apply)
- A. Posterior tibial artery
- B. Radial artery
- C. External iliac artery
- D. Dorsalis pedis artery
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dorsalis pedis artery. When assessing pedal pulses, the nurse should palpate the dorsalis pedis artery and the posterior tibial artery. The radial artery is located in the wrist and is not a site for assessing pedal pulses. The external iliac artery is not a correct site for assessing pedal pulses in the lower extremities, making it the correct answer.
3. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.
4. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
5. After a 26-year-old gravida 4, para 0 experienced a spontaneous abortion at 9 weeks gestation, how should the nurse intervene after observing the client crying softly one hour post dilation and curettage (D&C)?
- A. Offer to call the social worker to discuss the possibility of adoption
- B. Reassure the client that the infertility specialist can help
- C. Express sorrow for the client's grief and offer to sit with her
- D. Chart the vital signs and amount of vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a traumatic experience like a spontaneous abortion, it is crucial for the nurse to provide emotional support. Expressing sorrow for the client's grief and offering to sit with her demonstrates empathy and allows the client to process her emotions. Options A and B focus on future possibilities and medical interventions, which may not be immediately appropriate. Option D, while important for monitoring the client's physical status, does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.
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