Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with Pneumonia?

• A. Encourage mobilization and ambulation
• B. Encourage energy conservation with complete bed rest
• C. Provide humidified oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Restrict oral (PO) and intravenous fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent complications associated with pneumonia is to encourage mobilization and ambulation. These activities help prevent complications such as atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Encouraging energy conservation with complete bed rest (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to complications like muscle weakness and decreased lung expansion. Providing humidified oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) is important in pneumonia treatment but does not directly prevent complications associated with pneumonia itself. Restricting oral (PO) and intravenous fluids (Choice D) is not recommended as adequate hydration is crucial for pneumonia patients to maintain respiratory function and overall health.

3. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

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