Nursing Elites

1. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
• B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage fluid intake
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently
• D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is the priority nursing action for a client admitted with hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and prevent further complications associated with hyperglycemia. Encouraging fluid intake is important but not the priority as insulin administration takes precedence to address the immediate hyperglycemic state. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is essential but comes after administering insulin to ensure the treatment's effectiveness. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is incorrect as the client is admitted with hyperglycemia, which requires raising blood glucose levels, not lowering them further.

3. A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Portal hypertension.
• B. Sodium and water retention.
• C. Decreased serum albumin.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.

4. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• C. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin C
• D. Limit intake of dairy products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is the preferred location for this injection?

• A. Deltoid muscle.
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle.
• C. Ventrogluteal muscle.
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults due to its muscle mass and lower risk of nerve injury. The deltoid muscle is more commonly used for vaccines in adults, the vastus lateralis muscle is preferred in infants and young children, and the dorsogluteal muscle is associated with a higher risk of nerve injury and is no longer recommended for intramuscular injections.

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