Nursing Elites

1. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
• B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.

2. While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent wound drainage. Previously, the wound was inflamed and tender but without drainage. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Determine if the drainage has an unpleasant odor.
• B. Monitor the client's white blood cell count (WBC).
• C. Request a culture and sensitivity of the wound.
• D. Cleanse the wound with a sterile saline solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Requesting a culture and sensitivity of the wound is the most crucial action in this scenario. This will help identify the specific organism causing the infection and determine its sensitivity to antibiotics, guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Option A is less critical as odor alone may not provide enough information about the type of infection. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count (WBC) in option B is important but not as immediate as obtaining a wound culture. Cleansing the wound with a sterile saline solution in option D is necessary but should follow after obtaining the culture results to ensure proper treatment.

3. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

4. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

5. How should the nurse respond to an older male client who states that his religion does not permit him to bathe daily?

• A. Review the importance of hygienic measures for improved health
• B. State that the healthcare provider has prescribed a bath today
• C. Offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day
• D. Request that the client clarify his religious beliefs about bathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day. This approach respects the client's religious beliefs while ensuring that hygienic practices are still maintained. By providing options, the nurse can work together with the client to find a solution that aligns with both his beliefs and his health needs. Choice A is incorrect because solely reviewing the importance of hygiene may not address the client's specific religious concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's beliefs and autonomy. Choice D is not the best approach as it may come off as confrontational or dismissive of the client's beliefs, rather than working collaboratively to find a suitable solution.

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