Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• C. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin C
• D. Limit intake of dairy products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours post-operative from abdominal surgery. The client is complaining of severe pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Reassess the pain and its characteristics
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Notify the surgeon
• D. Encourage the use of relaxation techniques

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a post-operative client complains of severe pain is to reassess the pain and its characteristics. Reassessment is crucial to understand the nature and intensity of the pain, which will guide the nurse in providing appropriate interventions. Administering pain medication may be necessary but should only be done after reassessment to ensure the right medication and dose are given. Notifying the surgeon may be required in certain situations, but reassessment of pain should precede this action. Encouraging relaxation techniques is not the priority when a client is experiencing severe pain post-operatively.

3. A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?

• A. Moon face, slow wound healing, muscle wasting, sodium and water retention
• B. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor
• C. Bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies and periorbital edema
• D. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.

4. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Avoid driving for at least 2 weeks
• B. Resume a low-fat diet
• C. Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours
• D. Expect significant pain for the first week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

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