a client is prescribed warfarin coumadin for atrial fibrillation which dietary instruction should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin is the priority nursing action for a client admitted with hyperglycemia due to diabetes mellitus. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and prevent further complications associated with hyperglycemia. Encouraging fluid intake is important but not the priority as insulin administration takes precedence to address the immediate hyperglycemic state. Monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is essential but comes after administering insulin to ensure the treatment's effectiveness. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia is incorrect as the client is admitted with hyperglycemia, which requires raising blood glucose levels, not lowering them further.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.

4. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

5. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Remove the bandages from the incision after 24 hours.' Prompt removal of bandages after 24 hours promotes proper wound healing and reduces the risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding driving for 2 weeks may not be universally necessary post-cholecystectomy. Choice B is incorrect because while a low-fat diet is recommended after surgery, it is not directly related to incision care. Choice D is incorrect because while pain is common post-surgery, stating 'significant pain for the first week' may not apply to all patients, potentially causing unnecessary anxiety.

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