HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
- D. Allow the client to eat quickly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues.
- C. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
- D. Delays absorption of glucose from the intestines.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.
3. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes fresh bleeding on the client's cast. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client's hemoglobin levels to determine if the client is in shock
- B. Call the surgeon and prepare to take the client back to the operating room
- C. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding
- D. No action is required as postoperative bleeding can be expected
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention is to outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding. This approach helps in assessing the extent and progression of the bleeding. Option A is incorrect because assessing hemoglobin levels would not provide immediate information on the ongoing bleeding. Option B is premature without first monitoring the bleeding site. Option D is incorrect because although some postoperative bleeding can be expected, fresh bleeding on the cast warrants immediate monitoring and evaluation.
4. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. After 2 weeks of antidepressant medication therapy, the nurse notices the client has more energy, is giving her belongings away to her visitors, and is in an overall better mood. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the client to keep her belongings because she will need them at discharge
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself
- C. Reassure the client that the antidepressant drugs are apparently effective
- D. Support the client by telling her what wonderful progress she is making
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself. Sudden mood improvements and behavioral changes, like giving away belongings, can be concerning signs of possible suicidal ideation. Assessing for suicidal thoughts is crucial to ensure the client's safety. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of harm or assess for suicidal ideation. Choice C is incorrect because simply reassuring the client about the effectiveness of antidepressants does not address the immediate concern of suicidal ideation. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on praising progress without addressing the potential risk of harm the client may pose to herself.
5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
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