the nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytomwhich symptom should the nurse expect to find
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HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.

2. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing for change of shift. Which document or tool should the healthcare professional use to communicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating critical information during shift changes or handoffs. It helps to ensure important details about a patient's condition and care are effectively communicated. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a note-taking format used in healthcare to document patient encounters, but it is not specifically designed for shift handoffs. Choice C, DAR (Data, Action, Response), and choice D, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), are not commonly used communication tools during shift changes in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct choice is SBAR for effective communication during shift handoffs.

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