Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Contact
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.

3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

4. While documenting in a client’s medical record, which of the following entries should the nurse record?

• A. “Incision without redness or drainage”
• B. “Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals”
• C. “Administered pain medication”
• D. “Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting specific observations, such as an oral temperature being slightly elevated at a specific time, is crucial for monitoring the client's health status accurately. This type of information helps in assessing trends and changes in the client's condition over time. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specificity and does not provide measurable data about the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect because it is a general statement related to client behavior rather than a specific health observation. Choice C is incorrect as it reflects an action taken by the nurse and not a direct client's condition or observation.

5. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?

• A. pH below 7.3
• B. Potassium of 5.0
• C. HCT of 60
• D. PaO2 of 79%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.

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