Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.

2. A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Alert the American Nurses Association.
• B. Fill out an incident report.
• C. Report the observations to the nurse manager on the unit.
• D. Leave the nurse alone to sleep.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. What information should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects.
• B. Avoid exposure to sunlight while taking this medication.
• C. Do not discontinue the medication abruptly.
• D. Increase fluid intake while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do not discontinue the medication abruptly.' It is crucial for clients prescribed prednisone to not stop the medication suddenly to prevent adrenal insufficiency, as this medication suppresses the body's natural production of cortisol. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not necessarily to prevent stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sunlight while taking prednisone. Choice D is not directly related to prednisone use; while adequate fluid intake is generally beneficial, it is not a specific instruction for prednisone administration.

5. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Insert the catheter at a 45° angle
• B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position
• C. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
• D. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.

Similar Questions