a nurse is caring for a client who requires an ng tube for stomach decompression which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client requires an NG tube for stomach decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when inserting the NG tube?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when inserting an NG tube is to help the client take sips of water. This helps facilitate the insertion of the tube by promoting swallowing and passage through the esophagus. Asking the client to swallow assists in guiding the tube into the stomach. Inserting the tube without asking the client to swallow may lead to incorrect placement or discomfort. Advancing the tube continuously without pausing can cause the tube to coil in the esophagus, leading to complications. Using a large-bore tube for insertion is unnecessary and may increase the risk of injury or discomfort for the client.

2. A newly licensed nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. The nurse notes that the provider has prescribed a medication that is unfamiliar. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When encountering an unfamiliar medication, the safest action for a nurse is to consult the medication reference book available on the unit. This resource provides accurate and detailed information about medications, including indications, dosages, side effects, and nursing considerations. Administering a medication without understanding it (choice B) can lead to medication errors and harm to the client. Asking a colleague for information (choice C) may not always provide accurate or up-to-date information. Contacting the provider (choice D) should be reserved for situations where immediate clarification is needed, but consulting the reference book is the initial step to gain knowledge and ensure safe medication administration.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A nurse is reviewing the correct use of a fire extinguisher with a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse direct the client to take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step in using a fire extinguisher is to remove the safety pin. This action enables the extinguisher to be activated and used effectively. Choice B, aiming the extinguisher at the base of the fire, comes after removing the safety pin. Choice C, squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and choice D, sweeping the extinguisher from side to side, are subsequent steps in using a fire extinguisher and should follow removing the safety pin.

5. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

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