HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. During auscultation of the anterior chest wall of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, what type of breath sounds should a nurse expect to hear?
- A. Normal breath sounds
- B. Adventitious breath sounds
- C. Absent breath sounds
- D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During auscultation of the chest, normal breath sounds are the expected findings in a client who is newly admitted without respiratory complaints. Normal breath sounds indicate proper airflow through the airways without any abnormalities. Adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) refer to abnormal lung sounds such as crackles or wheezes, which are indicative of underlying respiratory issues. Absent breath sounds (Choice C) suggest a lack of airflow to a particular lung area, which could be due to conditions like pneumothorax. Diminished breath sounds (Choice D) indicate reduced airflow or consolidation in a specific lung region, often seen in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumonia. Therefore, in a newly admitted client without respiratory complaints, the nurse should expect to hear normal breath sounds during auscultation.
2. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?
- A. Push hard and deep on the chest
- B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
- C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
- D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
5. A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?
- A. Offer to assist the client who needs the bedpan.
- B. Administer the injection the other nurse prepared.
- C. Prepare another syringe and administer the injection.
- D. Tell the client who needs the bedpan to wait while the nurse gives someone else medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.
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