Nursing Elites

1. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?

• A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
• B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
• C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
• D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.

2. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

• A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
• B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
• C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
• D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

3. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
• C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

4. The patient has been diagnosed with a spinal cord injury and needs to be repositioned using the logrolling technique. Which technique will the healthcare team use for logrolling?

• A. Involve at least three to four people.
• B. Instruct the patient not to reach for the opposite side rail when turning.
• C. Move the bottom part of the patient’s torso first and then the top part.
• D. Use pillows for support before turning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for logrolling involves at least three to four people to ensure the safety and proper alignment of the patient's spine. Logrolling requires coordinated effort from multiple individuals to prevent twisting or bending of the spine, hence option A is correct. Option B is incorrect as patients with spinal cord injuries should not be instructed to reach for the opposite side rail due to the risk of causing harm. Option C is incorrect as moving the bottom part of the patient's torso first could lead to spinal misalignment. Option D is incorrect as pillows should be used for support and comfort after the patient has been successfully turned, not before.

5. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

• A. Number of staff-induced injuries
• B. Client satisfaction survey
• C. Healthcare-associated infection rate
• D. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Healthcare-associated infection rate. This measure best indicates the effect of the policy on infection control. By monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate, it can be determined if the policy of removing acrylic nails has contributed to reducing the risk of infections. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the outcome of the policy. The number of staff-induced injuries may not be solely due to acrylic nails. Client satisfaction may not be directly impacted by this policy, and needle-stick injuries are more related to a different aspect of healthcare practice.

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