Nursing Elites

1. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?

• A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
• B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
• C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
• D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.

3. What are the correct steps used for abdominal assessment?

• A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
• B. Palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion
• C. Percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation
• D. Auscultation, palpation, percussion, inspection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. Inspection allows the nurse to visually assess the abdomen for any abnormalities or distension. Auscultation follows to listen for bowel sounds and vascular sounds. Percussion helps to assess the density of underlying structures and detect any abnormal masses. Palpation is performed last to assess tenderness, organ size, and detect any masses. Choices B, C, and D have the steps in the incorrect order, making them the wrong choices.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an opioid medication to a client for pain management. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed without any additional monitoring.
• B. Monitor the client for respiratory depression.
• C. Administer the medication only when the client requests it.
• D. Ask another healthcare professional to verify the medication before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering opioid medications, it is crucial to monitor the client for respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of opioids. Monitoring for respiratory depression is a critical safety measure to ensure the client's well-being during opioid therapy. Option A is incorrect because additional monitoring, especially for respiratory depression, is necessary when giving opioids to prevent adverse effects. Option C is incorrect as administering the medication only upon client request may compromise effective pain management and adherence to the prescribed regimen. Option D is incorrect as medication verification by another healthcare professional is essential for safety but not directly related to monitoring the client for respiratory depression after opioid administration.

5. A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.

• A. Inject 5 units of air into the bottle of regular insulin
• B. Withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin from the bottle
• C. Inject 10 units of air into the bottle of NPH insulin
• D. Withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from the bottle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.

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