Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?

• A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
• B. Pain at the procedure site.
• C. Blood-tinged sputum.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.

2. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increases joint lubrication
• B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
• C. Enhances bone density
• D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

5. A client with a diagnosis of anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with milk to enhance absorption
• B. Expect stools to be dark in color
• C. Take the medication before bedtime
• D. Avoid foods high in vitamin C

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Expect stools to be dark in color.' Dark stools are a common side effect of iron supplementation due to the unabsorbed iron, and this is not a cause for concern. Choice A is incorrect because taking iron with milk can decrease its absorption due to calcium binding. Choice C is incorrect as there are no specific recommendations to take ferrous sulfate before bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as vitamin C actually enhances iron absorption and should not be avoided.

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