Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?

• A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
• B. Pain at the procedure site.
• C. Blood-tinged sputum.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.

2. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Heart rate
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Peripheral resistance
• D. Neuroendocrine hormones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.

3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Bilateral leg swelling.
• B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
• C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
• D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

5. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed nitroglycerin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increases heart rate
• B. Lowers blood pressure
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps increase oxygen supply to the heart tissue. Option A, 'Increases heart rate,' is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not directly affect heart rate. Option B, 'Lowers blood pressure,' is also incorrect as while nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure, its primary action in the context of MI is related to coronary artery dilation. Option D, 'Reduces myocardial oxygen demand,' is not the primary action of nitroglycerin in the treatment of myocardial infarction; its main action is to increase oxygen supply by dilating coronary arteries.

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