HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?
- A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
- B. Pain at the procedure site.
- C. Blood-tinged sputum.
- D. Shortness of breath.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.
2. Which of the following are key parameters that produce blood pressure? (Select ONE that does not apply)
- A. Heart rate
- B. Stroke volume
- C. Peripheral resistance
- D. Neuroendocrine hormones
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are indeed key parameters that directly influence blood pressure. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, affecting how much blood is pumped. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction. Peripheral resistance is the resistance of the arteries to blood flow, impacting the pressure needed to push blood through. Neuroendocrine hormones, while they can indirectly influence blood pressure regulation by affecting factors like blood volume and vascular tone, are not direct final parameters that produce blood pressure.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?
- A. Ask the client about any allergies to medications
- B. Review the purposes of each medication
- C. Check for potential drug interactions
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Spider angiomas.
- D. Asterixis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Asterixis. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver disease that necessitates immediate attention. While jaundice (choice A), ascites (choice B), and spider angiomas (choice C) are common clinical findings in cirrhosis, asterixis is the most concerning due to its association with hepatic encephalopathy, which can lead to altered mental status and even coma. Jaundice, ascites, and spider angiomas are also important signs in cirrhosis, but asterixis indicates a more critical condition requiring urgent intervention.
5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
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