Nursing Elites

1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

3. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Ask the client why the bath was refused
• B. Ask family members to encourage the client to bathe
• C. Explain the importance of good hygiene to the client
• D. Reschedule the bath for the following day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with a urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Irrigate the catheter daily
• B. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level
• C. Change the catheter every 48 hours
• D. Administer prophylactic antibiotics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Choice A, irrigating the catheter daily, is not recommended as it can introduce pathogens into the bladder. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice C) can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for preventing CAUTIs and can lead to antibiotic resistance.

5. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

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