HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
- C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
- D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
3. Which client assessment falls within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
- A. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints
- B. New admission of a client with deep vein thrombosis
- C. Return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection
- D. Transfer of a client with sepsis from a long-term care facility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing a new deep vein thrombosis (DVT) patient is within the scope of practical nursing. It involves monitoring and supporting the circulatory system health, which is a common responsibility for practical nurses. Choices A, C, and D involve scenarios that are typically beyond the initial assessment and care provided by practical nurses. An agitated client with bilateral wrist restraints may require immediate intervention by higher-level healthcare providers due to safety concerns and potential underlying issues. The return of a post-anesthesia client following a colon resection and the transfer of a client with sepsis involve more specialized care that goes beyond the typical responsibilities of a practical nurse, often requiring interventions from registered nurses or physicians.
4. The client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which instruction should be included?
- A. Increase the intake of spicy foods
- B. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- C. Drink coffee in moderation
- D. Eat large meals at bedtime
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client with newly diagnosed PUD about lifestyle modifications is to avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs can exacerbate peptic ulcer disease by causing further irritation of the gastric mucosa. Increasing the intake of spicy foods (choice A) can aggravate the condition by irritating the stomach lining. Drinking coffee (choice C) can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the symptoms of PUD. Eating large meals at bedtime (choice D) can also exacerbate PUD by increasing gastric acid production when the body is at rest, potentially leading to discomfort and symptoms.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Continue the transfusion at a slower rate
- B. Administer an antipyretic
- C. Stop the transfusion immediately
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client receiving a blood transfusion reports chills and back pain, it indicates a possible transfusion reaction. The nurse's priority action is to stop the transfusion immediately. Continuing the transfusion at a slower rate (Choice A) can exacerbate the reaction. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the underlying issue of a transfusion reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important but should not delay the immediate action of stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety.
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