Nursing Elites

1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

2. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...

• A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
• B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
• C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
• D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

4. The wife is observed shaving her husband's beard with a safety razor. What should the nurse do?

• A. Advise the wife to shave against the hair growth
• B. Teach the wife to keep the skin loose to avoid cuts
• C. Encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband
• D. Demonstrate the correct procedure to the wife

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband. The rationale behind this is that the wife is already performing the task, so abrupt interference may lead to potential harm or emotional distress. It is crucial for the nurse to carefully observe the situation and assess for any safety concerns. While teaching proper techniques (Choice B) is important, it can be addressed later in a non-critical manner to prevent skin irritation and injury. Advising to shave against the hair growth (Choice A) may cause skin irritation and cuts. Although demonstrating the correct procedure (Choice D) may be helpful, it is essential to consider the current dynamics and respect the wife's autonomy in caring for her husband.

5. What is the most important action to prevent complications while caring for a client receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube?

• A. Check tube placement before each feeding
• B. Flush the tube with water before and after each feeding
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
• D. Administer the feeding at room temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking tube placement before each feeding is crucial to prevent aspiration, a serious complication of enteral nutrition. Ensuring the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach helps avoid the risk of the feeding going into the lungs, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Flushing the tube with water (Choice B) is important for maintaining tube patency but is not the most critical action to prevent complications. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) helps reduce the risk of aspiration but is not as crucial as verifying tube placement. Administering the feeding at room temperature (Choice D) is more related to patient comfort and does not directly address the prevention of complications associated with enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.

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