HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
- A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
- B. Melanin and keratin
- C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
- D. Adipose cells and blood vessels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.
2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being educated about dietary modifications. Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize the most?
- A. Limit intake of high-fiber foods
- B. Restrict protein intake
- C. Avoid dairy products
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to restrict protein intake. By restricting protein intake, the workload on the kidneys is reduced, which helps slow the progression of CKD. While high-fiber foods are generally beneficial, they may need to be limited in some individuals with CKD due to potassium concerns, making choice A less critical. Avoiding dairy products may be necessary in some cases to control phosphorus levels, but it is not as vital as restricting protein intake. Increasing fluid intake is essential for kidney health, but it is not the most critical dietary modification for clients with CKD.
3. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
- A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
- B. It can cause drowsiness
- C. It should be taken with meals
- D. Completing the full course is crucial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
4. A healthcare provider is conducting a health education session about the prevention of type 2 diabetes. What lifestyle modification should be emphasized?
- A. Increasing physical activity
- B. Reducing dietary sugar intake
- C. Regular health screenings
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To effectively prevent type 2 diabetes, individuals should focus on a combination of lifestyle modifications. Increasing physical activity helps maintain a healthy weight and improves insulin sensitivity. Reducing dietary sugar intake can lower the risk of developing diabetes by managing blood sugar levels. Regular health screenings are crucial for early detection and timely intervention. Emphasizing all these modifications together provides a comprehensive approach to diabetes prevention. Choices A, B, and C are all important components of a healthy lifestyle that can contribute to reducing the risk of type 2 diabetes.
5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.
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