which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated blood pressure in clients with chronic kidney disease undergoing hemodialysis can indicate fluid overload or poor dialysis efficacy and should be reported immediately. This finding could lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this situation. Decreased urine output may be expected due to the kidney disease, a weight loss of 1 kg is within an acceptable range, and the presence of a bruit over the fistula is a common finding in clients undergoing hemodialysis and does not require immediate reporting.

3. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client experiencing an anxiety attack?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering prescribed anxiolytic medication is the most appropriate intervention for a client experiencing an anxiety attack. Anxiolytic medications can provide rapid relief from severe anxiety symptoms. Teaching deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be helpful for managing mild anxiety but may not be sufficient during an acute anxiety attack. Providing a quiet environment (choice B) is beneficial to reduce stimuli, but it may not address the immediate distress of an ongoing anxiety attack. Engaging the client in conversation (choice D) is generally not recommended during an anxiety attack as it can potentially exacerbate the symptoms by increasing stimulation.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. What instruction should the nurse give about the inhaler?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a corticosteroid inhaler is to rinse the mouth after each use to prevent the development of oral thrush, a common side effect of these inhalers. Choice A is incorrect as corticosteroid inhalers are often used regularly as a maintenance treatment, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect because corticosteroid inhalers provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an attack. Choice D is incorrect and potentially dangerous advice as increasing the dose without medical guidance can lead to adverse effects.

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