Nursing Elites

1. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

• A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
• B. To lower blood pressure.
• C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
• D. To increase appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

4. A client is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which instruction about insulin administration should the nurse emphasize?

• A. Rotate injection sites to prevent tissue damage
• B. Inject insulin into the same site to increase absorption
• C. Only use insulin pens
• D. Mix different types of insulin in the same syringe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to only use insulin pens. This is because insulin pens provide a convenient and accurate way to administer insulin. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and promote consistent insulin absorption, making choice A incorrect. Injecting insulin into the same site can lead to lipodystrophy and is not recommended, making choice B incorrect. Mixing different types of insulin in the same syringe can alter their action profiles and is generally not recommended, making choice D incorrect.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Avoid walking as much as possible
• B. Report any signs of bleeding to the healthcare provider
• C. Take aspirin for additional pain relief
• D. Wear compression stockings at night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting signs of bleeding is essential while on anticoagulant therapy to prevent complications.

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