a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula what is th
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client with COPD prescribed oxygen therapy is not to adjust the oxygen flow rate without consulting a healthcare provider. This is crucial because too much oxygen can suppress the client's respiratory drive, leading to further complications. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the oxygen flow rate without medical advice can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as oxygen therapy should be used as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to ensure the correct oxygen flow rate rather than using a humidifier.

2. Which client will benefit most from the application of pneumatic compression devices to the lower extremities? The client who

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pneumatic compression devices are most beneficial for immobile clients on prescribed bedrest to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Applying these devices helps in promoting circulation and preventing blood clots. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically relate to the primary indication for pneumatic compression devices, making them incorrect. Pressure ulcers, diminished pedal pulse volume, and confusion with climbing out of bed may require different interventions or treatments.

3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the acute phase of a myocardial infarction (MI), the priority intervention is to administer morphine for pain relief. Morphine not only alleviates pain but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in the management of MI. Encouraging the client to perform isometric exercises (choice B) can increase myocardial oxygen demand and should be avoided during the acute phase. Positioning the client flat in bed (choice C) may worsen symptoms by increasing venous return and workload on the heart. Restricting fluid intake (choice D) is not a priority intervention during the acute phase of MI; maintaining adequate hydration is important for organ perfusion.

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