Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the most important preoperative instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take your insulin as usual
• B. Do not eat or drink after midnight
• C. Monitor your blood glucose closely
• D. Bring your glucose meter to the hospital

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important preoperative instruction for a client with diabetes mellitus scheduled for surgery is to instruct them not to eat or drink after midnight. This instruction is crucial to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status before surgery, reducing the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. While taking insulin as usual (Choice A) is important, doses can be adjusted by the healthcare team. Monitoring blood glucose closely (Choice C) is essential but not as critical preoperatively. Bringing a glucose meter to the hospital (Choice D) can be helpful but is not as vital as maintaining NPO status.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone a thoracentesis. Which finding should be reported immediately?

• A. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
• B. Pain at the procedure site.
• C. Blood-tinged sputum.
• D. Shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath should be reported immediately as it may indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication of thoracentesis. Diminished breath sounds on the affected side, pain at the procedure site, and blood-tinged sputum are common findings post-thoracentesis and do not necessarily indicate immediate complications like a pneumothorax.

4. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

• A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
• B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
• C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
• D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

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