Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). What is the primary goal of this medication?

• A. To reduce the risk of bleeding.
• B. To lower blood pressure.
• C. To stimulate red blood cell production.
• D. To increase appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To stimulate red blood cell production.' Epoetin alfa, such as Epogen, is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. This medication helps increase hemoglobin levels and reduce the need for blood transfusions. Option A, 'To reduce the risk of bleeding,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa does not directly impact bleeding risk. Option B, 'To lower blood pressure,' is incorrect as epoetin alfa is not indicated for blood pressure management. Option D, 'To increase appetite,' is also incorrect as the primary goal of epoetin alfa is related to improving anemia by boosting red blood cell production.

3. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?

• A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
• B. Importance of medication adherence
• C. Follow-up appointment details
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.

4. A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This is crucial to help prevent esophageal irritation. Option A is correct as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, not lie down. Option B is incorrect and a duplicate of Option A.

5. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 50
• B. 67
• C. 57
• D. 70

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL ÷ 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

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