Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?

• A. The importance of using a spacer
• B. How to synchronize breaths with inhaler activation
• C. Regular cleaning of the inhaler
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.

3. The nurse plans to evaluate the effectiveness of several drugs administered by different routes. Arrange the routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption. 1. Intravenous 2. Sublingual 3. Intramuscular 4. Subcutaneous

• A. 1,2,3,4
• B. 4,3,2,1
• C. 2,4,3,1
• D. 3,4,1,2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order of routes of administration from fastest to slowest rate of absorption is 1. Intravenous, 2. Sublingual, 3. Intramuscular, 4. Subcutaneous. Intravenous administration provides the fastest absorption as the drug is directly injected into the bloodstream. Sublingual administration allows for rapid absorption through the mucous membranes under the tongue. Intramuscular administration has a slower absorption rate as the drug is injected into the muscle tissue. Subcutaneous administration is the slowest as the drug is injected into the fatty tissue under the skin, leading to a slower absorption compared to the other routes.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

5. Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

• A. If the client has any metal implants
• B. If the client has allergies to iodine or shellfish
• C. If the client has a history of claustrophobia
• D. If the client has ever had a similar procedure before

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

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