Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The nurse notices the client's meal tray contains high-sodium foods. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Educate the client about the importance of a low-sodium diet
• B. Replace the meal with a low-sodium option
• C. Report the error to the dietary department
• D. Encourage the client to avoid eating the high-sodium foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to replace the high-sodium meal with a low-sodium option. This immediate intervention ensures that the client adheres to the prescribed low-sodium diet, crucial for managing heart failure and preventing fluid retention. Educating the client (Choice A) about the diet is important but not as urgent as ensuring they receive the correct meal. Reporting the error to the dietary department (Choice C) can be done after addressing the immediate issue. Encouraging the client to avoid high-sodium foods (Choice D) is not as effective as replacing the current meal with a suitable alternative.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?

• A. Vastus Lateralis
• B. Radial artery
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Rectus femoris

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.

4. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?

• A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
• B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
• C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
• D. Allow the client to eat quickly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.

5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

Similar Questions