Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with a stroke. The healthcare provider writes orders for 'ROM as needed.' What should the nurse do next?

• A. Restrict the patient's mobility as much as possible.
• B. Realize the patient is unable to move extremities.
• C. Move all the patient's extremities.
• D. Further assess the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to further assess the patient. 'ROM as needed' stands for Range of Motion, indicating that the patient should have their limbs moved to maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength. Before initiating any movements, it is crucial to assess the patient's current condition to determine their abilities and limitations. Restricting mobility (choice A) is not appropriate as it contradicts the purpose of ROM exercises. Realizing the patient is unable to move extremities (choice B) assumes without assessment and can lead to inappropriate care. Moving all the patient's extremities (choice C) without assessing the patient first can be harmful, as it may cause pain or injury if done incorrectly. Therefore, further assessment is necessary to provide safe and effective care.

2. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture removal kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
• B. Remove sutures using sterile technique.
• C. Inspect the wound for signs of infection.
• D. Document the removal of sutures.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After applying sterile gloves, the nurse should proceed to remove the sutures using sterile technique. This step ensures the safe and effective removal of sutures without introducing infection. Choice A, cleaning sutures along the incision site, would not be the next step as the primary focus is on suture removal. Inspecting the wound for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but typically follows suture removal. Documenting the removal of sutures (Choice D) is essential but usually occurs after the procedure is completed.

3. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

4. Which toy is most appropriate for an 18-month-old child?

• A. A pull toy
• B. A puzzle with large pieces
• C. A book with large pictures
• D. A doll with small clothes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pull toy is the most appropriate choice for an 18-month-old child. At this age, children are developing their motor skills and coordination, and a pull toy can help with these aspects by encouraging movement and coordination. Puzzle with large pieces (Choice B) may pose a choking hazard for a child of this age due to small parts. While a book with large pictures (Choice C) can be engaging and beneficial for language development, a pull toy is more suitable for promoting physical development in an 18-month-old. A doll with small clothes (Choice D) is not ideal for this age group as small parts can be a choking hazard.

5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

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