Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with a stroke. The healthcare provider writes orders for 'ROM as needed.' What should the nurse do next?

• A. Restrict the patient's mobility as much as possible.
• B. Realize the patient is unable to move extremities.
• C. Move all the patient's extremities.
• D. Further assess the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to further assess the patient. 'ROM as needed' stands for Range of Motion, indicating that the patient should have their limbs moved to maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength. Before initiating any movements, it is crucial to assess the patient's current condition to determine their abilities and limitations. Restricting mobility (choice A) is not appropriate as it contradicts the purpose of ROM exercises. Realizing the patient is unable to move extremities (choice B) assumes without assessment and can lead to inappropriate care. Moving all the patient's extremities (choice C) without assessing the patient first can be harmful, as it may cause pain or injury if done incorrectly. Therefore, further assessment is necessary to provide safe and effective care.

2. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

3. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

• A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
• B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
• C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
• D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

5. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

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