HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Measure the client's urine output.
- B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.
2. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
- B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
- D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.
3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
- A. Updating the plan of care for a client who is postoperative
- B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk using a quad cane
- C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
- D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - 'Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence.' This task falls within the scope of duties for an assistive personnel (AP). Updating care plans (Choice A), reinforcing teaching (Choice B), and applying sterile dressings (Choice D) typically require a higher level of training and expertise, making them tasks that should not be assigned to an AP. Assigning appropriate tasks based on skill levels ensures safe and effective patient care.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare professional to use?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal site
- C. Dorsogluteal site
- D. Rectus femoris site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. This site is preferred due to its large muscle mass and distance from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle, while commonly used for vaccinations, may not be suitable for certain medications due to its smaller muscle mass. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve, which can lead to complications. The rectus femoris site is not commonly used for intramuscular injections in clinical practice.
5. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?
- A. Feet
- B. Nail beds
- C. Perineum
- D. Oral cavity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.
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