a client with a nasogastric tube is receiving continuous enteral feedings which intervention should the lpn implement to reduce the risk of aspiration
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. What immediate action should a healthcare worker take after being stuck in the hand by an exposed needle?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate action for a healthcare worker who has been stuck by an exposed needle is to wash the hands thoroughly with soap and water to reduce the risk of infection. This helps to remove any potential pathogens introduced by the needle stick. Looking up the policy on needle sticks (Choice A) is important but not the immediate action required. Contacting employee health services (Choice B) and notifying the supervisor and risk management (Choice D) are crucial steps to take, but they should follow the initial step of washing the hands to mitigate the risk of infection.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing techniques?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves keeping the hands higher than the elbows to prevent contamination. Washing with hands held lower than the elbows can lead to potential contamination. Using a brush to scrub under the nails is not recommended as it can cause microabrasions, increasing infection risk. While washing for at least 30 seconds is a good practice for thorough hand hygiene, hand positioning is critical during surgical hand-washing. Using alcohol-based hand rub alone is insufficient for surgical hand-washing as it may not effectively remove dirt, debris, and transient microorganisms.

5. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

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