Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is admitting a client. Which of the following information should the nurse document in the client's record first?

• A. Assessment
• B. Plan of care
• C. Client history
• D. Medication list

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessment. When admitting a client, the nurse should document assessment data first. This information is crucial as it provides a baseline for planning care and treatment. By documenting the assessment initially, the nurse can accurately identify the client's needs and prioritize care. Choice B, Plan of care, would be developed based on the assessment findings, so it should come after the initial assessment. Choices C and D, Client history and Medication list, are important but would typically be documented after the assessment to ensure that the most current and relevant information is captured in the client's record.

3. When preparing to apply dressing to a stage 2 pressure injury, which type of dressing should the nurse use?

• A. Hydrocolloid
• B. Gauze
• C. Transparent film
• D. Alginate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. Hydrocolloid dressings are recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as they help maintain a moist wound environment, which supports the healing process. Gauze (choice B) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can stick to the wound bed and disrupt the healing process. Transparent film dressings (choice C) are more suitable for superficial wounds or as a secondary dressing. Alginate dressings (choice D) are typically used for wounds with heavy exudate, which is not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.

4. A client tells the nurse, “I have to check with my partner and see if they think I am ready to go home.” The nurse responds, “How do you feel about going home today?” Which clarifying technique is the nurse using to enhance communication with the client?

• A. Pacing
• B. Reflecting
• C. Paraphrasing
• D. Restating

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reflecting is the correct answer as it involves echoing back the client’s feelings and concerns, helping them explore their thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse mirrors the client's statement to encourage the client to delve deeper into their emotions. Pacing involves matching the rate and flow of communication, paraphrasing is restating in different words, and restating is repeating what the client said without adding new information. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are not the appropriate clarifying technique demonstrated in the situation described.

5. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

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