Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A client appears upset about the IV catheter insertion but does not communicate it to the nurse after being informed about the prescribed IV fluids. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. Ignore the client’s discomfort
• B. Reassure the client without addressing concerns
• C. Is there something about this procedure that concerns you?
• D. Proceed with the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to ask the client if there are any concerns about the procedure. By doing so, the nurse acknowledges the client's distress and opens up a dialogue to address any anxieties or misconceptions. Option A is incorrect as ignoring the client’s discomfort can lead to increased anxiety and potential harm. Option B is not ideal as reassuring the client without addressing specific concerns may not alleviate the client's distress. Option D is incorrect because proceeding with the procedure without addressing the client's unspoken concerns can further escalate the client's distress.

3. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

4. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Urine specific gravity
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.

5. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?

• A. pH below 7.3
• B. Potassium of 5.0
• C. HCT of 60
• D. PaO2 of 79%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.

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