Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment as she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care
• B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client
• C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client
• D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to determine which staff members have already been fitted for particulate filter masks before changing assignments. This ensures safety and compliance with infection control protocols. Option A is incorrect as wearing a standard face mask before being fitted for a filter mask does not address compliance with droplet precautions. Option B is incorrect because the priority is to ensure all staff members have appropriate equipment before providing care. Option C is incorrect as a standard mask may not offer sufficient protection when dealing with clients under droplet precautions.

3. A 10-year-old client is recovering from a splenectomy following a traumatic injury. The client's laboratory results show a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28 percent. The best approach for the nurse to use is to:

• A. Limit milk and milk products
• B. Encourage bed rest and quiet activities
• C. Plan nursing care around lengthy rest periods
• D. Promote a diet rich in iron

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities is crucial for a child recovering from a splenectomy with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. This approach helps conserve energy, promotes healing, and allows the body to focus on rebuilding red blood cells. Limiting milk and milk products (Choice A) is not directly related to improving the child's condition. Encouraging bed rest and quiet activities (Choice B) is appropriate as it helps in conserving energy and preventing physical exertion. Promoting a diet rich in iron (Choice D) is beneficial for improving hemoglobin levels in the long term, but immediate rest and recovery take precedence in this scenario.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

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