Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. When should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?

• A. Immediately after exhalation.
• B. During the inhalation.
• C. At the end of three inhalations.
• D. Immediately after inhalation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'During the inhalation.' Administering the medication while inhaling ensures proper delivery to the lungs. Inhaling the medication allows it to reach the lungs effectively for optimal therapeutic benefit. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because administering the medication after exhalation or at the end of inhalations may result in improper drug delivery and reduced therapeutic effects.

3. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

4. A client in the terminal stage of cancer is crying. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Sit and hold the client's hand
• B. Encourage the client to talk about their feelings
• C. Leave the client alone to cry
• D. Ignore the client's crying

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In situations where a client is in the terminal stage of cancer and crying, it is essential for the nurse to provide comfort and support. Sitting with the client and holding their hand can offer a sense of presence and emotional support, showing empathy and understanding. Encouraging the client to talk about their feelings (choice B) is also important, but initially, non-verbal support through physical presence can be comforting. Leaving the client alone to cry (choice C) can make the client feel abandoned and unsupported during a vulnerable moment. Ignoring the client's crying (choice D) is not appropriate and lacks compassion and empathy, which are crucial in end-of-life care.

5. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

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