Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. When admitting a client to an acute care facility, an identification bracelet is sent up with the admission form. In the event these do not match, the nurse's best action is to

• A. Change whichever item is incorrect to the correct information
• B. Use the bracelet and admission form until a replacement is supplied
• C. Notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet
• D. Make a corrected identification bracelet for the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet. By doing so, the nurse ensures patient safety and accuracy in identification. Changing the incorrect item (Choice A) could lead to errors and confusion in the patient's identification. Using the mismatched items until a replacement is supplied (Choice B) compromises patient safety and could result in errors during care delivery. Making a corrected identification bracelet without verifying the correct information (Choice D) could introduce further inaccuracies and risks in patient identification.

3. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?

• A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
• B. Hearing loss and ataxia
• C. Headaches and vomiting
• D. Abdominal mass and weakness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abdominal mass and weakness. In neuroblastoma, the most common presenting signs are related to the mass effect of the tumor, leading to an abdominal mass and symptoms of weakness. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more indicative of other conditions like neurofibromatosis or brain tumors. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions such as brain tumors or increased intracranial pressure, but they are not specific to neuroblastoma.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform mouth care for an unresponsive client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Raise the level of the bed
• B. Administer mouth care with the client in a supine position
• C. Use a tongue depressor to open the mouth
• D. Place the client in a prone position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Raising the bed level is the correct action to facilitate easier access for mouth care in an unresponsive client. This position enhances the safety and comfort of both the client and the healthcare provider. Administering mouth care with the client in a supine position (lying flat on their back) can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a tongue depressor to open the mouth is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and potential injury. Placing the client in a prone position (lying face down) is contraindicated for mouth care and can compromise the client's airway.

5. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?

• A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
• B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
• C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
• D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.

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