a client with a nasogastric tube is receiving continuous enteral feedings which intervention should the lpn implement to reduce the risk of aspiration
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HESI LPN

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1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin and asks the nurse to administer all the injections. The nurse explains the importance of learning self-care and appropriately adds which of the following statement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's fear and offers support to help them overcome the resistance to self-care. By expressing willingness to assist and asking for ways to help the client, the nurse encourages open communication and collaboration in finding solutions to the client's concerns. Choices A, C, and D, while valid statements, do not directly address the client's fear or resistance, which is crucial in promoting self-care adherence in this situation.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 750 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 7 hr. The professional should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total volume (750 mL) by the total time (7 hr). 750 ÷ 7 ≈ 107 mL/hr. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the infusion rate based on the total volume and time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate in this scenario.

4. A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.

5. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

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