Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

3. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. “I am available to talk if you should change your mind.”
• B. “I understand you do not want to discuss it further.”
• C. “You should talk to the provider if you have more questions.”
• D. “I will be back later to discuss your concerns.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to provide chest physiotherapy for a client who has left lower lobe atelectasis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?

• A. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
• B. Position the client in an upright sitting position.
• C. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure.
• D. Perform chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is the appropriate action when providing chest physiotherapy for a client with left lower lobe atelectasis. This position helps mobilize secretions from the lower lobes of the lungs, aiding in their clearance. Trendelenburg's position promotes drainage from the affected area. Positioning the client in an upright sitting position (Choice B) would not facilitate the drainage of secretions from the affected lobe. Administering bronchodilators after the procedure (Choice C) is not directly related to chest physiotherapy and the treatment of atelectasis. Performing chest percussion and vibration while the client is lying flat (Choice D) may not effectively target the lower lobes where the atelectasis is located.

5. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
• C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
• D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

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