Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

2. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?

• A. bladder distention
• B. decreased blood pressure
• C. calf swelling
• D. diminished bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a heart murmur. The healthcare provider is preparing to auscultate the pulmonary valve. Over which of the following locations should the healthcare provider place the bell of the stethoscope?

• A. Second intercostal space at the left sternal border
• B. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
• C. Fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border
• D. Fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the pulmonary valve is the second intercostal space at the left sternal border. This area is where the pulmonary valve can best be heard due to its anatomical position. Choice B, the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, is the location for auscultating the mitral valve. Choice C, the fourth intercostal space at the left sternal border, is the area for the tricuspid valve. Choice D, the fifth intercostal space at the left anterior axillary line, is the site for listening to the mitral valve as well. Therefore, option A is the correct choice for auscultating the pulmonary valve.

4. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?

• A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
• B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
• C. I have been making plans for the future.
• D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.

5. A nurse observes smoke coming from under the door of the staff lounge. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Extinguish the fire.
• B. Activate the fire alarm.
• C. Move clients who are nearby.
• D. Close all open doors on the unit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the nurse's priority is to activate the fire alarm. This action alerts others to the emergency, initiates the evacuation process, and ensures everyone's safety. Extinguishing the fire can be dangerous and should be left to trained personnel. Moving clients who are nearby might delay the activation of the alarm and can put the nurse and clients at risk. Closing all open doors on the unit is important to contain the fire but should not take precedence over alerting others through the fire alarm system.

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