HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
2. When should a client receiving insulin lispro administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. Before sleep
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered shortly before meals. This timing helps to synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing blood glucose levels in the body.
3. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?
- A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
- B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
- C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
- D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.
4. What is the significance of patient advocacy in nursing?
- A. Prioritizing the needs of the healthcare team over the patient
- B. Ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected
- C. Limiting patient autonomy
- D. Focusing solely on clinical procedures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patient advocacy in nursing entails ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected. This involves advocating for the patients' best interests, supporting informed decision-making, and safeguarding their autonomy. Choice A is incorrect because patient advocacy focuses on the patient's needs, not the healthcare team's. Choice C is incorrect as patient advocacy aims to empower patients and enhance their autonomy rather than limiting it. Choice D is incorrect since patient advocacy goes beyond clinical procedures to encompass holistic care that addresses the patients' preferences and rights.
5. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.