Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

2. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
• C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.

3. When providing postmortem care to a client diagnosed with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) who has passed away, what type of precautions is appropriate to use?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Compromised host precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care for a client with MRSA. MRSA is primarily spread through direct contact, so using contact precautions helps prevent the transmission of the infection. Airborne precautions are not necessary for MRSA, as it is not transmitted through the air like tuberculosis or measles. Droplet precautions are used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets like influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a standard precaution type and are not specific to managing MRSA infection.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue to measure the client's vitals every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Notify the nursing manager.
• B. Document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon.
• C. Administer additional fluids as per standard procedure.
• D. Call the surgeon back immediately to ensure timely intervention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option B, which is to document the client's condition and communication with the surgeon. By documenting the client's condition and the communication with the surgeon, the nurse ensures legal protection and maintains continuity of care. This documentation serves as evidence of the actions taken, communication exchanged, and the rationale behind decisions made. Option A, notifying the nursing manager, may not be necessary at this stage unless there are specific institutional protocols requiring it. Administering additional fluids without further clarification may not be appropriate and could worsen the client's condition if not indicated. Calling the surgeon back immediately (option D) may disrupt the agreed-upon plan of action and fail to follow the surgeon's instructions of reassessment after an hour.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

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