HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?
- A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
- B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
- C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
- D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
- B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
- C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
- D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.
3. When teaching a client and their family how to care for the client’s tracheostomy at home, which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors
- B. Maintain a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care
- C. Do not remove the outer cannula for routine cleaning
- D. Clean around the stoma with normal saline solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. This practice helps protect the stoma from foreign particles and temperature changes, reducing the risk of infection. Maintaining a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not specific to outdoor care. Removing the outer cannula for routine cleaning (choice C) is not recommended as it may cause trauma or dislodgment of the tracheostomy tube. Cleaning around the stoma with povidone-iodine (choice D) is not advisable as it can be irritating to the skin and may impair the healing process.
4. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
5. A healthcare professional is planning to document care provided for a client. Which of the following abbreviations should the professional use?
- A. PC for after meals
- B. QD for every day
- C. BID for twice a day
- D. PRN for as needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PC for after meals. PC stands for 'post cibum,' which is the appropriate abbreviation for 'after meals' in medical documentation. Choices B, QD, and C, BID, represent 'every day' and 'twice a day,' respectively, which are not specific to meal times. Choice D, PRN, signifies 'as needed,' which is also not related to meal timings. Therefore, for documenting care provided after meals, the most suitable abbreviation is PC.
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