Nursing Elites

1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

2. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:

• A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
• B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
• C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
• D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.

3. When changing a client's colostomy pouch and noticing peristomal skin irritation, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Change the pouch as needed based on individual requirements.
• B. Apply the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry.
• C. Pat the peristomal skin dry after cleaning.
• D. Ensure the pouch is 0.32 cm (1/8 in) larger than the stoma.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes peristomal skin irritation while changing a client's colostomy pouch, it is crucial to ensure that the pouch is slightly larger (0.32 cm or 1/8 inch) than the stoma. This extra space helps prevent the pouch from rubbing against the stoma and causing further irritation. Option A is correct because colostomy pouches should be changed based on individual needs, not necessarily every 24 hours. Option B is incorrect because applying the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry ensures better adhesion. Option C is incorrect as patting the peristomal skin dry after cleaning is more gentle and less likely to cause irritation compared to rubbing.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile and needs to be turned every 2 hours. The patient has poor lower extremity circulation, and the nurse is concerned about irritation of the patient's toes. Which device will the nurse use?

• A. Hand rolls
• B. A foot cradle
• C. A trapeze bar
• D. A trochanter roll

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A foot cradle is the correct choice for this situation. A foot cradle is used to reduce pressure on the tips of a patient's toes in individuals with poor lower extremity circulation. Hand rolls are not designed to address toe irritation specifically. A trapeze bar is used to assist patients with repositioning in bed, and a trochanter roll is used to support the hips and prevent external rotation of the legs, neither of which directly address toe irritation in this scenario.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Deltoid
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.

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