the nurse has admitted a 4 year old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an a
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HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

2. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

5. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.

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