Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Sluggish pupillary response to light
• B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
• C. Complaint of severe headache
• D. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.

2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

3. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
• D. Administer an antihypertensive agent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.

4. After undergoing an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery, a client is experiencing difficulty managing their diet. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?

• A. Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow
• B. Plan volume-controlled evenly spaced meals throughout the day
• C. Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals
• D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-forming foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thoroughly chewing food is crucial for clients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery to aid in digestion and prevent complications. Proper chewing helps break down food into smaller particles, making it easier for the digestive system to process. This instruction is essential to prevent issues such as food blockages or inadequate nutrient absorption. Choices B and C are also important for post-gastric bypass clients to maintain proper nutrition and hydration, but they are not as critical as ensuring thorough chewing. Choice D addresses dietary concerns but is not as immediately crucial as ensuring the client chews food properly to support digestion and prevent complications.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan?

• A. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing
• B. Recommend a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet
• C. Limit physical activity to prevent shortness of breath
• D. Encourage the client to drink large amounts of fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve ventilation and reduce shortness of breath in COPD clients. This technique involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling through pursed lips. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet is not recommended for individuals with COPD as it can lead to weight gain and worsen respiratory function. Choice C is incorrect as limiting physical activity can lead to deconditioning and worsen COPD symptoms. Regular, moderate exercise is beneficial for individuals with COPD. Choice D is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can strain the heart in COPD clients. It is important to maintain adequate but not excessive fluid intake to prevent dehydration and maintain optimal lung function.

Similar Questions