HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The healthcare provider is completing a head-to-toe assessment for a client admitted for observation after falling out of a tree. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Sluggish pupillary response to light
- B. Clear fluid leaking from the nose
- C. Complaint of severe headache
- D. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clear fluid leaking from the nose is concerning for cerebrospinal fluid leakage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Sluggish pupillary response to light may indicate neurological issues but is not as urgent as CSF leakage. Complaint of severe headache is important but not as critical as the possibility of CSF leakage. Periorbital ecchymosis of the right eye could be indicative of trauma but does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life.
2. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
3. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. The heart will stop beating, and you will stop breathing.
- B. You will go to sleep and not wake up.
- C. Your body will stop functioning, and you will no longer feel pain.
- D. You will feel very tired, and your body will shut down slowly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a truthful yet sensitive response to the child's question. Saying that the body will stop functioning and that there will be no more pain helps the child understand what to expect without unnecessary details or causing distress. Choice A is too technical and may not be suitable for a child. Choice B might give the impression of a peaceful passing, which may not always be the case. Choice D introduces the concept of feeling tired, which might not be accurate or helpful in this context.
4. The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?
- A. Burning pain due to a Morton’s neuroma
- B. Sharp pain related to a crushed femur
- C. Paresthesia of fingers due to carpal tunnel syndrome
- D. Stinging pain related to plantar fasciitis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton’s neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.
5. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
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