Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

2. When designing a program to provide primary preventative health care to a community-based healthcare system, which service should the nurse consider for inclusion in the program? Select all that apply.

• A. Breast screening for older women
• B. Rehabilitation services for stroke victims
• C. Blood pressure assessments
• D. Antepartum nutritional counseling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast screening for older women. In the context of primary preventative health care, breast screening for older women is crucial for early detection of breast cancer. Choice B, rehabilitation services for stroke victims, focuses on rehabilitative care rather than primary preventative care. Choice C, blood pressure assessments, is important for monitoring health status but not exclusive to primary prevention. Choice D, antepartum nutritional counseling, is more related to prenatal care than primary preventative health care. Therefore, choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the primary preventative health care objective of the grant.

3. A client with a BMI of 60.2 kg/m² is admitted to the intensive care unit 3 weeks after gastric bypass with gastric rupture and impending multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). What should the nurse prepare to implement first?

• A. Mechanical ventilation
• B. Platelet transfusion
• C. Loop diuretic therapy
• D. Cyanocobalamin administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this critical situation with gastric rupture and impending MODS, the priority intervention should be mechanical ventilation. This client is at risk of respiratory compromise due to the severity of the condition. Platelet transfusion (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of significant bleeding. Loop diuretic therapy (Choice C) and cyanocobalamin administration (Choice D) are not the immediate priorities in this scenario and would not address the urgent need for respiratory support.

4. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an outpatient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs?

• A. Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home
• B. Discussing dietary restrictions with the nurse
• C. Arranging follow-up appointments with her oncologist
• D. Reporting to the nurse any new or worsening symptoms

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reporting any new or worsening symptoms to the nurse is crucial for the early detection of potential complications. This behavior shows that the client understands the importance of monitoring her health status post-chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while renting movies, borrowing books, discussing dietary restrictions, and arranging follow-up appointments are all important aspects of care, the most critical factor immediately after chemotherapy is to monitor and report any new or worsening symptoms to healthcare providers.

5. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
• B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
• C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
• D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.

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