Nursing Elites

1. When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?

• A. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain
• B. Severe headache and sweating all the time
• C. Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal
• D. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.

2. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

3. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

4. When designing a program to provide primary preventative health care to a community-based healthcare system, which service should the nurse consider for inclusion in the program? Select all that apply.

• A. Breast screening for older women
• B. Rehabilitation services for stroke victims
• C. Blood pressure assessments
• D. Antepartum nutritional counseling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast screening for older women. In the context of primary preventative health care, breast screening for older women is crucial for early detection of breast cancer. Choice B, rehabilitation services for stroke victims, focuses on rehabilitative care rather than primary preventative care. Choice C, blood pressure assessments, is important for monitoring health status but not exclusive to primary prevention. Choice D, antepartum nutritional counseling, is more related to prenatal care than primary preventative health care. Therefore, choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the primary preventative health care objective of the grant.

5. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4” on a 1 to 10 scale
• B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
• C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
• D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.

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