HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Patch one eye.
- B. Reorient often.
- C. Range of motion.
- D. Evaluate swallow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.
2. A client with skin grafts covering full-thickness burns on both arms and legs is scheduled for a dressing change. The client is nervous and requests that the dressing change be skipped this time. What action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Explain the importance of regular dressing changes
- B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication
- C. Proceed with the scheduled dressing change
- D. Encourage the client to express any anxieties
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the most important action for the nurse to take is to explain the importance of regular dressing changes to the client. By doing so, the nurse can help the client understand the necessity for wound healing and infection prevention. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice B) may not address the root cause of the client's anxiety, which is the lack of understanding. Proceeding with the scheduled dressing change (Choice C) without addressing the client's concerns can worsen their anxiety and decrease trust. Encouraging the client to express any anxieties (Choice D) is important but not as crucial as ensuring the client comprehends the rationale behind the dressing change.
3. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bilateral Wheezing
- B. Urticaria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.
4. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
5. A child with heart failure (HF) is taking digitalis. Which sign indicates to the nurse that the child may be experiencing digitalis toxicity?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Vomiting
- D. Muscle cramps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vomiting is a common sign of digitalis toxicity and should be closely monitored. While tachycardia is a common sign of heart failure, it is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity (Choice A). Dyspnea (Choice B) and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not specific signs of digitalis toxicity and can be present in other conditions. Therefore, the presence of vomiting should raise concerns about digitalis toxicity in the child with heart failure.
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