Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

2. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

4. When changing a client's colostomy pouch and noticing peristomal skin irritation, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Change the pouch as needed based on individual requirements.
• B. Apply the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry.
• C. Pat the peristomal skin dry after cleaning.
• D. Ensure the pouch is 0.32 cm (1/8 in) larger than the stoma.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes peristomal skin irritation while changing a client's colostomy pouch, it is crucial to ensure that the pouch is slightly larger (0.32 cm or 1/8 inch) than the stoma. This extra space helps prevent the pouch from rubbing against the stoma and causing further irritation. Option A is correct because colostomy pouches should be changed based on individual needs, not necessarily every 24 hours. Option B is incorrect because applying the pouch only when the skin barrier is completely dry ensures better adhesion. Option C is incorrect as patting the peristomal skin dry after cleaning is more gentle and less likely to cause irritation compared to rubbing.

5. During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Counsel the client on medication adherence.
• B. Assess the client for medication reactions.
• C. Compile a list of the client's current medications.
• D. Evaluate the client's understanding of medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.

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