Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
• C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
• D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

4. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

• A. Position the client 6.1 m (20 ft) away from the Snellen chart
• B. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze
• C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye
• D. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 inches) away from the client's eye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

5. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

• A. Abnormal breath sounds
• B. Cyanosis of the lips
• C. Increasing pulse rate
• D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

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