HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum creatinine
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication commonly used in clients with chronic kidney disease to stimulate red blood cell production. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy. Hemoglobin levels reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and indicate if the medication is successfully treating anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Option A, serum creatinine, is a marker of kidney function, not the primary indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness. Option C, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), is a measure of kidney function and hydration status. Option D, platelet count, assesses clotting ability and is unrelated to monitoring the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in treating anemia in chronic kidney disease.
2. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
- A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
- B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
- C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
- D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
3. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
4. When performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should be used?
- A. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter.
- B. Apply continuous suction during insertion of the catheter.
- C. Apply suction only during insertion of the catheter.
- D. Insert the catheter while the client is exhaling.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps prevent damage to the mucosa and is the recommended approach. Continuous suction during insertion (choice B) can cause trauma to the airway lining. Applying suction only during insertion (choice C) is not sufficient for effective removal of secretions. Inserting the catheter while the client is exhaling (choice D) does not follow the standard procedure for nasotracheal suctioning.
5. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids
- C. Place the client in an upright position
- D. Assess the client's peak flow rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the priority nursing intervention for a client experiencing wheezing and shortness of breath due to asthma. Bronchodilators help relieve bronchoconstriction, allowing better airflow and improving breathing. Encouraging the client to drink fluids may be beneficial in certain situations, but it is not the priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Placing the client in an upright position, not supine, can facilitate easier breathing by allowing the chest to expand fully. While assessing the client's peak flow rate is important in asthma management, in this acute situation, the priority is to provide immediate relief by administering the bronchodilator.