HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
- B. Encourage her to keep the joint covered to maintain warmth.
- C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
- D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging that the client's wife is supporting the arm correctly is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse reinforces correct technique and promotes confidence. Choice B is incorrect as the issue is not about maintaining warmth. Choice C is incorrect as gripping directly under the joint is not necessary in this case. Choice D is incorrect as instructing to grip directly over the joint may not provide the best support for passive range-of-motion exercises.
2. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
- B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
- D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?
- A. Collect at least 2 inches of formed stool.
- B. Wear sterile gloves while obtaining the specimen.
- C. Use a culturette for specimen collection.
- D. Record the date and time the stool was collected.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 400 mL/hr
- B. 200 mL/hr
- C. 300 mL/hr
- D. 250 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.
5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
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