Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?

• A. Cheilitis
• B. Halitosis
• C. Glossitis
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
• C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
• D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

3. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

4. During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?

• A. Touch the client's face with a cotton ball
• B. Apply a vibrating tuning fork to the client's forehead
• C. Have the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together
• D. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

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