Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
• C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
• D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.

2. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

3. A home health nurse is discussing the dangers of carbon monoxide poisoning with a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Carbon monoxide does not have a distinct odor.
• B. Water heaters should be inspected every 5 years.
• C. The lungs are not damaged from carbon monoxide inhalation.
• D. Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin in the body.' Carbon monoxide is an odorless, colorless gas, so it does not have a distinct odor (Choice A). While regular inspection of appliances like water heaters is important for safety, it is not directly related to carbon monoxide poisoning (Choice B). Carbon monoxide primarily affects the cardiovascular system by binding with hemoglobin, reducing the blood's ability to carry oxygen, rather than causing direct lung damage (Choice C). Understanding how carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin is crucial in recognizing the mechanism of poisoning and its potential consequences.

4. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac 0.5 mg/kg IV bolus every 6 hr to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. The available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.5 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 1.5 mL
• D. 2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. The child weighs 66 lb, which is approximately 30 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg, so for a 30 kg child, the dose would be 0.5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 15 mg. Since the available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 15 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 0.5 mL per dose. Therefore, choice A (0.5 mL) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the child's weight and the concentration of the ketorolac injection.

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