Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
• C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
• D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.

2. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

3. A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?

• A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
• B. I should inspect my skin daily.
• C. The brace will be worn day and night.
• D. I can take it off when I shower.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.

4. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

5. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• C. Arterial pH of 7.20
• D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.

Similar Questions