Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
• C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
• D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

3. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.3 mL
• B. 0.25 mL
• C. 0.4 mL
• D. 0.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
• B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
• D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.

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