HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A patient with stomatitis is receiving oral care education from a nurse. Which instructions will the nurse provide?
- A. Avoid commercial mouthwashes.
- B. Avoid normal saline rinses.
- C. Brush with a hard toothbrush.
- D. Brush with an alcohol-based toothpaste.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient with stomatitis is to avoid commercial mouthwashes. Commercial mouthwashes often contain alcohol and other ingredients that can irritate the already inflamed oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Avoiding commercial mouthwashes helps prevent further irritation and discomfort. Choice B is incorrect because normal saline rinses are gentle and can help soothe the oral mucosa in patients with stomatitis. Choice C is incorrect because a soft toothbrush should be used to prevent further irritation or injury to the gums. Choice D is incorrect because an alcohol-based toothpaste can be too harsh and drying for patients with stomatitis.
2. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
- B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
- C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
- D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.
3. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:
- A. Low
- B. High
- C. Inaccurate
- D. Unaffected
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.
4. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
- C. Decrease in blood pressure
- D. Increase in respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access