Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has been prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take my pulse before taking the medication.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I should avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
• D. I should eat foods high in potassium while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Eating foods high in potassium can lead to hyperkalemia when taken with digoxin, indicating a need for further teaching. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that demonstrate understanding of digoxin therapy. Taking the pulse, maintaining a consistent dosing schedule, and avoiding antacids to prevent interactions with digoxin are all appropriate client responses.

2. The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modifications. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. If I exercise at least twice weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
• B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
• C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
• D. My blood level of low-density lipoproteins needs to increase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Limiting intake of beef to 4 ounces per week is an effective dietary modification to manage high cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because the frequency and duration of exercise alone may not be sufficient to lower cholesterol significantly. Choice B is incorrect as proteins, including lean sources like poultry and fish, can be a part of a healthy diet. Choice D is incorrect as low-density lipoproteins, known as bad cholesterol, should be decreased, not increased, for heart health.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

4. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?

• A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
• B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
• C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
• D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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