Nursing Elites

1. When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should:

• A. Cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
• B. Use a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag.
• C. Obtain the specimen from the drainage tubing.
• D. Replace the catheter before obtaining the specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure when obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter for culture and sensitivity is to cleanse the entry port before withdrawing urine. This step helps reduce the risk of contamination and ensures the accuracy of the results. Option B is incorrect because using a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag is not the recommended method for obtaining a catheter specimen. Option C is incorrect as obtaining the specimen from the drainage tubing is not the appropriate technique for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter. Option D is incorrect because replacing the catheter before obtaining the specimen is not necessary and may introduce unnecessary complications.

2. While auscultating the anterior chest of a newly admitted patient, what would the nurse expect to hear?

• A. Normal breathing sounds
• B. Wheezing
• C. Crackles
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When auscultating the chest, normal breathing sounds are expected in a healthy individual. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound that indicates narrowed airways and is often heard in conditions like asthma. Crackles are fine, crackling sounds heard on inspiration or expiration and are associated with conditions like pneumonia or heart failure. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh sound heard during inspiration due to upper airway obstruction. Therefore, choices B, C, and D indicate abnormal respiratory findings, while choice A signifies normal breathing sounds.

3. Which of the following findings contraindicate the use of haloperidol (Haldol) and warrant withholding the dose?

• A. Drowsiness, lethargy, and inactivity
• B. Dry mouth, nasal congestion, and blurred vision
• C. Rash, blood dyscrasias, severe depression
• D. Hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rash, blood dyscrasias, and severe depression are serious side effects of haloperidol that necessitate withholding the dose and prompt further evaluation. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction, blood dyscrasias are serious blood disorders that can be life-threatening, and severe depression may worsen with haloperidol use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drowsiness, lethargy, inactivity, dry mouth, nasal congestion, blurred vision, hyperglycemia, weight gain, and edema are common side effects of haloperidol that may not necessarily contraindicate its use but should be monitored and managed appropriately.

4. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. “Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed.”
• B. “Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom.”
• C. “Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy.”
• D. “Remove clocks from the client’s room.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity is an effective non-restraint intervention for managing confused clients. It helps reduce agitation, promotes circulation, and may decrease the need for restraints. Choice A is incorrect as using full-length side rails can potentially restrict a client's movement, which is counterproductive to avoiding restraints. Choice B, while emphasizing monitoring, does not directly address alternatives to restraint use. Choice D is also incorrect as removing clocks from the client's room does not directly address managing confusion and reducing the need for restraints.

5. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

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