Nursing Elites

1. When obtaining a urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity from an indwelling catheter, the nurse should:

• A. Cleanse the entry port prior to withdrawing urine.
• B. Use a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag.
• C. Obtain the specimen from the drainage tubing.
• D. Replace the catheter before obtaining the specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct procedure when obtaining a urine specimen from an indwelling catheter for culture and sensitivity is to cleanse the entry port before withdrawing urine. This step helps reduce the risk of contamination and ensures the accuracy of the results. Option B is incorrect because using a sterile syringe to collect urine from the collection bag is not the recommended method for obtaining a catheter specimen. Option C is incorrect as obtaining the specimen from the drainage tubing is not the appropriate technique for collecting a urine sample from an indwelling catheter. Option D is incorrect because replacing the catheter before obtaining the specimen is not necessary and may introduce unnecessary complications.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

3. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

4. When performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should be used?

• A. Apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter.
• B. Apply continuous suction during insertion of the catheter.
• C. Apply suction only during insertion of the catheter.
• D. Insert the catheter while the client is exhaling.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps prevent damage to the mucosa and is the recommended approach. Continuous suction during insertion (choice B) can cause trauma to the airway lining. Applying suction only during insertion (choice C) is not sufficient for effective removal of secretions. Inserting the catheter while the client is exhaling (choice D) does not follow the standard procedure for nasotracheal suctioning.

5. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

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